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  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old male visits a private vascular clinic for his long-standing varicose veins....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male visits a private vascular clinic for his long-standing varicose veins. He had been referred by his family physician and is concerned about the appearance of his legs. He experiences heaviness and aching in his legs. As a professional athlete, he often wears shorts during games and is worried that his condition might affect his performance.

      After being informed of the risks associated with varicose vein surgery, he decides to proceed with the operation. However, during his follow-up appointment, he reports a loss of sensation over the lateral foot and posterolateral leg.

      Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged during the surgery?

      Your Answer: Deep fibular nerve

      Correct Answer: Sural nerve

      Explanation:

      During varicose vein surgery, there is a potential for damage to the sural nerve, which innervates the posterolateral leg and lateral foot. Additionally, the saphenous nerve, responsible for sensation in the medial aspect of the leg and foot, and the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, which innervates the lateral thigh, may also be at risk.

      During surgical procedures, there is a risk of nerve injury caused by the surgery itself. This is not only important for the patient’s well-being but also from a legal perspective. There are various operations that carry the risk of nerve damage, such as posterior triangle lymph node biopsy, Lloyd Davies stirrups, thyroidectomy, anterior resection of rectum, axillary node clearance, inguinal hernia surgery, varicose vein surgery, posterior approach to the hip, and carotid endarterectomy. Surgeons must have a good understanding of the anatomy of the area they are operating on to minimize the incidence of nerve lesions. Blind placement of haemostats is not recommended as it can also cause nerve damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A woman with longstanding angina visits her doctor and reports persistent symptoms. The...

    Incorrect

    • A woman with longstanding angina visits her doctor and reports persistent symptoms. The patient was previously prescribed a calcium channel blocker, but due to her asthma, a beta blocker cannot be prescribed. The doctor decides to prescribe ivabradine. What is the site of action of ivabradine in the heart?

      Your Answer: Atrioventricular node

      Correct Answer: Sinoatrial node

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of Ivabradine in heart failure involves targeting the If ion current present in the sinoatrial node to lower the heart rate.

      Ivabradine: An Anti-Anginal Drug

      Ivabradine is a type of medication used to treat angina by reducing the heart rate. It works by targeting the If (‘funny’) ion current, which is found in high levels in the sinoatrial node. By doing so, it decreases the activity of the cardiac pacemaker.

      However, Ivabradine is not without its side effects. Many patients report experiencing visual disturbances, such as luminous phenomena, as well as headaches, bradycardia, and heart block.

      Despite its potential benefits, there is currently no evidence to suggest that Ivabradine is superior to existing treatments for stable angina. As with any medication, it is important to weigh the potential benefits against the risks and side effects before deciding whether or not to use it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      61.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the primary role of the nucleus in a eukaryotic cell? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary role of the nucleus in a eukaryotic cell?

      Your Answer: To regulate gene transcription and translation

      Explanation:

      The Nucleus: Control Centre of the Cell

      The nucleus is the control centre of the cell, responsible for regulating gene transcription from DNA into mRNA and from mRNA into peptide/protein synthesis. Eukaryotic cells have a membrane-enclosed organised nucleus, while prokaryotic cells lack this structure. The nuclear structure consists of an outer and inner nuclear membrane that form the nuclear envelope, which has nuclear pores allowing the movement of water-soluble molecules. Inside the nucleus is the nucleoplasm containing the nuclear lamina, a dense fibrillar network that acts as a skeleton and regulates DNA replication and cell division. The nucleus also contains nucleoli, structures involved in the formation of ribosomes responsible for mRNA translation.

      Although the incorrect answer options above describe processes in which the nucleus is involved, none of them constitutes its main function within the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which nerve is in danger during removal of the submandibular gland? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve is in danger during removal of the submandibular gland?

      Your Answer: Buccal nerve

      Correct Answer: Marginal mandibular nerve

      Explanation:

      The depressor anguli oris and depressor labii inferioris muscles are supplied by the marginal mandibular nerve, which is located beneath the platysma muscle. Damage to this nerve can result in facial asymmetry and drooling.

      Anatomy of the Submandibular Gland

      The submandibular gland is located beneath the mandible and is surrounded by the superficial platysma, deep fascia, and mandible. It is also in close proximity to various structures such as the submandibular lymph nodes, facial vein, marginal mandibular nerve, cervical branch of the facial nerve, deep facial artery, mylohyoid muscle, hyoglossus muscle, lingual nerve, submandibular ganglion, and hypoglossal nerve.

      The submandibular duct, also known as Wharton’s duct, is responsible for draining saliva from the gland. It opens laterally to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth and is approximately 5 cm in length. The lingual nerve wraps around the duct, and as it passes forward, it crosses medial to the nerve to lie above it before crossing back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.

      The submandibular gland receives sympathetic innervation from the superior cervical ganglion and parasympathetic innervation from the submandibular ganglion via the lingual nerve. Its arterial supply comes from a branch of the facial artery, which passes through the gland to groove its deep surface before emerging onto the face by passing between the gland and the mandible. The anterior facial vein provides venous drainage, and the gland’s lymphatic drainage goes to the deep cervical and jugular chains of nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      51.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are requested to evaluate a 65-year-old cattle farmer who complains of nonspecific...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 65-year-old cattle farmer who complains of nonspecific discomfort in the right upper quadrant. He denies any gastrointestinal symptoms but reports feeling generally unwell. Upon physical examination, the liver edge is palpable 6 cm below the costal margin and he has no fever.

      An ultrasound is ordered and reveals a solitary large cyst in the liver. Due to the cyst's size, the decision is made to perform surgical resection in conjunction with optimal medical therapy.

      What is the most probable causative organism responsible for this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Echinococcus granulosus

      Explanation:

      On ultrasound, hepatic cysts are detected in a sheep farmer.

      Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      57.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In which type of liver cells do oxygen-dependent metabolic reactions occur mostly? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which type of liver cells do oxygen-dependent metabolic reactions occur mostly?

      Your Answer: Zone 2 hepatocytes

      Correct Answer: Zone 1 hepatocytes

      Explanation:

      The Liver’s Dual Blood Supply and Cell Zones

      The liver is composed of small units called acini, each with a dual blood supply from the hepatic artery and portal vein. The blood flows through the hepatic sinusoids, allowing solutes and oxygen to move freely into the hepatocytes. The blood eventually drains into the hepatic vein and back into the systemic circulation.

      The hepatocytes in the periportal region, closest to the hepatic arterial and portal vein supply, are called zone 1 hepatocytes. They are highly metabolically active due to their oxygen-rich and solute-rich supply, but are also more susceptible to damage from toxins. Zone 1 hepatocytes are responsible for oxygen-requiring reactions such as the electron transport chains, Krebs’ cycle, fatty acid oxidation, and urea synthesis.

      Zone 2 and 3 hepatocytes receive less oxygen and are involved in reactions requiring little or no oxygen, such as glycolysis. Ito cells store fats and vitamin A and are involved in the production of connective tissue. Kupffer cells, specialized macrophages, are part of the reticuloendothelial system and are involved in the breakdown of haemoglobulin and the removal of haem for further metabolism in the hepatocytes. Kupffer cells also play a role in immunity. In liver disease, Ito cells are thought to be fundamental in the development of fibrosis and cirrhosis.

      Overall, the liver’s dual blood supply and cell zones play important roles in the metabolic and immune functions of the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Sarah, a 70-year-old female, visits her doctor with a lump in her groin....

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 70-year-old female, visits her doctor with a lump in her groin. Upon examination, the doctor observes that the lump becomes more prominent when the patient coughs. Considering Sarah's age and the location of the lump, the doctor diagnoses her with a direct inguinal hernia. What structure did Sarah's bowel pass through to be classified as a direct inguinal hernia?

      Your Answer: Deep inguinal ring

      Correct Answer: Hesselbach's triangle

      Explanation:

      Hesselbach’s triangle is a weak area in the anterior abdominal wall through which direct inguinal hernias can travel. Indirect inguinal hernias occur when the bowel passes through the inguinal canal via the deep inguinal ring. Femoral hernias occur when a portion of the bowel enters the femoral canal through the femoral ring. The failure of the processus vaginalis to close during embryonic development increases the risk of developing an indirect inguinal hernia.

      Hesselbach’s Triangle and Direct Hernias

      Hesselbach’s triangle is an anatomical region located in the lower abdomen. It is bordered by the epigastric vessels on the superolateral side, the lateral edge of the rectus muscle medially, and the inguinal ligament inferiorly. This triangle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of direct hernias, which pass through this region.

      To better understand the location of direct hernias, it is essential to know the boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle. The epigastric vessels are located on the upper and outer side of the triangle, while the lateral edge of the rectus muscle is on the inner side. The inguinal ligament forms the lower boundary of the triangle.

      In medical exams, it is common to test the knowledge of Hesselbach’s triangle and its boundaries. Understanding this region is crucial for identifying and treating direct hernias, which can cause discomfort and other complications. By knowing the location of Hesselbach’s triangle, medical professionals can better diagnose and treat patients with direct hernias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - During a carotid endarterectomy, if the internal carotid artery is cross-clamped without a...

    Incorrect

    • During a carotid endarterectomy, if the internal carotid artery is cross-clamped without a shunt, which vessels will not experience reduced or absent flow?

      Assuming that no shunt is inserted, which vessels will not have diminished or absent flow as a result during a carotid endarterectomy where the internal carotid artery is cross-clamped?

      Your Answer: Ophthalmic artery

      Correct Answer: Maxillary artery

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery gives rise to the maxillary artery.

      The internal carotid artery originates from the common carotid artery near the upper border of the thyroid cartilage and travels upwards to enter the skull through the carotid canal. It then passes through the cavernous sinus and divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. In the neck, it is surrounded by various structures such as the longus capitis, pre-vertebral fascia, sympathetic chain, and superior laryngeal nerve. It is also closely related to the external carotid artery, the wall of the pharynx, the ascending pharyngeal artery, the internal jugular vein, the vagus nerve, the sternocleidomastoid muscle, the lingual and facial veins, and the hypoglossal nerve. Inside the cranial cavity, the internal carotid artery bends forwards in the cavernous sinus and is closely related to several nerves such as the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves. It terminates below the anterior perforated substance by dividing into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries and gives off several branches such as the ophthalmic artery, posterior communicating artery, anterior choroid artery, meningeal arteries, and hypophyseal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Ben, an 18-year-old male, attends his follow up shoulder clinic appointment following a...

    Correct

    • Ben, an 18-year-old male, attends his follow up shoulder clinic appointment following a traumatic football injury.

      Dr. Patel, the orthopaedic surgeon, carries out a shoulder examination and notes winging of the right scapula.

      Which muscle is impacted?

      Your Answer: Serratus anterior

      Explanation:

      The serratus anterior muscle is supplied by the long thoracic nerve.

      Muscle Innervation Action
      Accessory nerve Trapezius Upper fibres elevate scapula, middle fibres retract scapula, and lower fibres pull scapula inferiorly
      Axillary nerve Deltoid Major abductor of the arm
      Dorsal scapular nerve Levator scapulae Elevates scapula
      Dorsal scapular nerve Rhomboid major Rotate and retract scapula

      The Long Thoracic Nerve and its Role in Scapular Winging

      The long thoracic nerve is derived from the ventral rami of C5, C6, and C7, which are located close to their emergence from intervertebral foramina. It runs downward and passes either anterior or posterior to the middle scalene muscle before reaching the upper tip of the serratus anterior muscle. From there, it descends on the outer surface of this muscle, giving branches into it.

      One of the most common symptoms of long thoracic nerve injury is scapular winging, which occurs when the serratus anterior muscle is weakened or paralyzed. This can happen due to a variety of reasons, including trauma, surgery, or nerve damage. In addition to long thoracic nerve injury, scapular winging can also be caused by spinal accessory nerve injury (which denervates the trapezius) or a dorsal scapular nerve injury.

      Overall, the long thoracic nerve plays an important role in the function of the serratus anterior muscle and the stability of the scapula. Understanding its anatomy and function can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat conditions that affect the nerve and its associated muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of general fatigue. He reports a...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of general fatigue. He reports a weight loss of 10 kg over the past six months due to loss of appetite. He experiences night sweats occasionally and feels feverish upon waking up, but he has never taken his temperature. During an abdominal examination, hepatosplenomegaly is detected. A complete blood count and blood film analysis reveal an increase in granulocytes, particularly mature myeloid cells, with significantly elevated basophils and eosinophils. No other distinct morphological features are identified. A bone marrow biopsy is performed. What is the chromosomal abnormality associated with the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: t(8;21)

      Correct Answer: t(9;22)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia and its Management

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is characterized by the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome in more than 95% of patients. This chromosome is formed due to a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, resulting in the fusion of the ABL proto-oncogene and the BCR gene. The resulting BCR-ABL gene produces a fusion protein that has excessive tyrosine kinase activity.

      CML typically affects individuals between the ages of 60-70 years and presents with symptoms such as anaemia, weight loss, sweating, and splenomegaly. The condition is also associated with an increase in granulocytes at different stages of maturation and thrombocytosis. In some cases, CML may undergo blast transformation, leading to acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) or acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).

      The management of CML involves various treatment options, including imatinib, which is considered the first-line treatment. Imatinib is an inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase associated with the BCR-ABL defect and has a very high response rate in chronic phase CML. Other treatment options include hydroxyurea, interferon-alpha, and allogenic bone marrow transplant. With proper management, individuals with CML can lead a normal life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      56.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - During your placement in paediatrics, you evaluate a 6-year-old patient who has recently...

    Correct

    • During your placement in paediatrics, you evaluate a 6-year-old patient who has recently undergone chemotherapy. Can you identify the most prevalent types of cancer in children between the ages of 0 and 15?

      Your Answer: Leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children, accounting for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children aged 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, fever, and testicular swelling.

      There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and pre-B phenotype. T-cell ALL accounts for 20% of cases, while B-cell ALL accounts for only 5%.

      Certain factors can affect the prognosis of ALL, including age, white blood cell count at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, race, and sex. Children under 2 years or over 10 years of age, those with a WBC count over 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, and those with T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian, and male sex have a poorer prognosis.

      Understanding the different types and prognostic factors of ALL can help in the early detection and management of this cancer. It is important to seek medical attention if any of the symptoms mentioned above are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 56-year-old man with end stage diabetic nephropathy is undergoing evaluation for a...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man with end stage diabetic nephropathy is undergoing evaluation for a renal transplant. In terms of HLA matching between donor and recipient, which HLA antigen is the most crucial to match?

      Your Answer: DR

      Explanation:

      The HLA system, also known as the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), is located on chromosome 6 and is responsible for human leucocyte antigens. Class 1 antigens include A, B, and C, while class 2 antigens include DP, DQ, and DR. When matching for a renal transplant, the importance of HLA antigens is ranked as DR > B > A.

      Graft survival rates for renal transplants are high, with a 90% survival rate at one year and a 60% survival rate at ten years for cadaveric transplants. Living-donor transplants have even higher survival rates, with a 95% survival rate at one year and a 70% survival rate at ten years. However, postoperative problems can occur, such as acute tubular necrosis of the graft, vascular thrombosis, urine leakage, and urinary tract infections.

      Hyperacute rejection can occur within minutes to hours after a transplant and is caused by pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens. This type of rejection is an example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction and leads to widespread thrombosis of graft vessels, resulting in ischemia and necrosis of the transplanted organ. Unfortunately, there is no treatment available for hyperacute rejection, and the graft must be removed.

      Acute graft failure, which occurs within six months of a transplant, is usually due to mismatched HLA and is caused by cell-mediated cytotoxic T cells. This type of failure is usually asymptomatic and is detected by a rising creatinine, pyuria, and proteinuria. Other causes of acute graft failure include cytomegalovirus infection, but it may be reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants.

      Chronic graft failure, which occurs after six months of a transplant, is caused by both antibody and cell-mediated mechanisms that lead to fibrosis of the transplanted kidney, known as chronic allograft nephropathy. The recurrence of the original renal disease, such as MCGN, IgA, or FSGS, can also cause chronic graft failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old man presents to the physician with complaints of fatigue, headache, joint...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the physician with complaints of fatigue, headache, joint pain, and overall malaise. Despite being an active individual who regularly engages in physical activities such as going to the gym, playing football, and taking his dog for long walks in the hills, he has no significant medical history. The doctor suspects Lyme disease. Which of the following skin rashes is commonly linked with this condition?

      Your Answer: Erythema migrans

      Explanation:

      This patient’s symptoms suggest that they may have Lyme Disease, which can be contracted through exposure to ticks while walking in long grass. One common sign of the acute stage of infection is the appearance of a bullseye rash, also known as erythema migrans. It is important to note that other types of rashes, such as erythema multiforme, erythema nodosum, petechial rash, and urticarial rash, can also be caused by various infectious and non-infectious factors.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      53.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old woman, who is 10 weeks pregnant with twins, presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman, who is 10 weeks pregnant with twins, presents to the emergency department with worsening nausea and vomiting over the last 3 weeks. This is her second pregnancy. Her first pregnancy had several complications, including hypertension of pregnancy and delivering a large for gestational age baby. What is a significant risk factor for developing HG based on this history?

      Your Answer: Hypertension of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Multiple pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG) is a condition characterized by persistent vomiting, dehydration, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalance, often accompanied by ketosis. Women with multiple pregnancies are at an increased risk of developing HG due to the higher concentrations of pregnancy-related hormones.

      Other risk factors for HG include trophoblastic disease, molar pregnancy, and a history of previous hyperemesis. Hypertension of pregnancy typically occurs after 16 weeks and is not associated with an increased risk of HG.

      Large for gestational age is not a risk factor for HG as it is usually diagnosed later in pregnancy during growth scans. Multiparity alone is not a risk factor, but a history of previous hyperemesis or nausea and vomiting during pregnancy increases the risk.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, pre-term birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old woman is scheduled to receive a heart transplant for severe congestive...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is scheduled to receive a heart transplant for severe congestive heart failure with an ejection fraction of 30%. She has been prescribed tacrolimus to minimize the risk of organ rejection.

      What should be monitored due to her new medication?

      Your Answer: Skin changes

      Correct Answer: Blood glucose

      Explanation:

      Tacrolimus may lead to hyperglycaemia, necessitating regular monitoring of blood glucose levels. Additionally, tacrolimus can cause nephrotoxicity, necessitating monitoring of U&E levels.

      Basiliximab, a monoclonal antibody against the IL-2 receptor, may cause oedema, necessitating weight monitoring.

      Cyclosporine, a calcineurin inhibitor, may cause hirsutism.

      Sirolimus, an mTOR inhibitor, may cause pancytopenia, necessitating monitoring of haemoglobin levels.

      Both sirolimus and cyclosporine may affect lipid levels.

      Tacrolimus: An Immunosuppressant for Transplant Rejection Prevention

      Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant drug that is commonly used to prevent transplant rejection. It belongs to the calcineurin inhibitor class of drugs and has a similar action to ciclosporin. The drug works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. It binds to FKBP, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells. This is different from ciclosporin, which binds to cyclophilin instead of FKBP.

      Compared to ciclosporin, tacrolimus is more potent, resulting in a lower incidence of organ rejection. However, it is also associated with a higher risk of nephrotoxicity and impaired glucose tolerance. Despite these potential side effects, tacrolimus remains an important drug in preventing transplant rejection and improving the success of organ transplantation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      59
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following symptoms is least commonly associated with salicylate overdose? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following symptoms is least commonly associated with salicylate overdose?

      Your Answer: Seizures

      Correct Answer: Tremor

      Explanation:

      Salicylate overdose can cause a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The respiratory center is initially stimulated, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can later cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of over 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.

      Salicylates can also cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. It is important to recognize the symptoms of salicylate overdose and seek prompt medical attention to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      65.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 49-year-old patient presents to the rheumatology clinic with weight loss, fever, and...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old patient presents to the rheumatology clinic with weight loss, fever, and night sweats. The individual is also experiencing shortness of breath. The following blood test results are obtained:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 140 g/l
      - Platelets: 192 * 109/l
      - White cell count (WCC): 5.3 * 109/l
      - Creatinine: 154 umol/l
      - Urea: 9 mmol/l
      - cANCA positive

      The white cell differential count is reported as normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is granulomatosis with polyangiitis, as indicated by the presence of cANCA and the involvement of multiple organs including the lungs, skin, kidneys, and upper respiratory tract. This condition is known to cause inflammation in the glomeruli, leading to renal impairment. Churg-Strauss disease and Alport’s syndrome are unlikely due to normal eosinophil levels and cANCA positivity, respectively. Goodpasture’s syndrome is also unlikely as the patient does not present with haematuria or haemoptysis.

      Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis: An Autoimmune Condition

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, previously known as Wegener’s granulomatosis, is an autoimmune condition that affects the upper and lower respiratory tract as well as the kidneys. It is characterized by a necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis. The condition presents with various symptoms such as epistaxis, sinusitis, nasal crusting, dyspnoea, haemoptysis, and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Other symptoms include a saddle-shape nose deformity, vasculitic rash, eye involvement, and cranial nerve lesions.

      To diagnose granulomatosis with polyangiitis, doctors perform various investigations such as cANCA and pANCA tests, chest x-rays, and renal biopsies. The cANCA test is positive in more than 90% of cases, while the pANCA test is positive in 25% of cases. Chest x-rays show a wide variety of presentations, including cavitating lesions. Renal biopsies reveal epithelial crescents in Bowman’s capsule.

      The management of granulomatosis with polyangiitis involves the use of steroids, cyclophosphamide, and plasma exchange. Cyclophosphamide has a 90% response rate. The median survival rate for patients with this condition is 8-9 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      8.4
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  • Question 18 - Which one of the following statements about the spleen is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements about the spleen is false?

      Your Answer: The white pulp has immune function.

      Correct Answer: The spleen is derived from endodermal tissue.

      Explanation:

      The spleen, which weighs 7oz (150-200g), is approximately 1 inch thick, 3 inches wide, and 5 inches long. It is located between the 9th and 11th ribs. While most of the gut is derived from endodermal tissue, the spleen is unique in that it originates from mesenchymal tissue.

      The Anatomy and Function of the Spleen

      The spleen is an organ located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. Its size can vary depending on the amount of blood it contains, but the typical adult spleen is 12.5cm long and 7.5cm wide, with a weight of 150g. The spleen is almost entirely covered by peritoneum and is separated from the 9th, 10th, and 11th ribs by both diaphragm and pleural cavity. Its shape is influenced by the state of the colon and stomach, with gastric distension causing it to resemble an orange segment and colonic distension causing it to become more tetrahedral.

      The spleen has two folds of peritoneum that connect it to the posterior abdominal wall and stomach: the lienorenal ligament and gastrosplenic ligament. The lienorenal ligament contains the splenic vessels, while the short gastric and left gastroepiploic branches of the splenic artery pass through the layers of the gastrosplenic ligament. The spleen is in contact with the phrenicocolic ligament laterally.

      The spleen has two main functions: filtration and immunity. It filters abnormal blood cells and foreign bodies such as bacteria, and produces properdin and tuftsin, which help target fungi and bacteria for phagocytosis. The spleen also stores 40% of platelets, reutilizes iron, and stores monocytes. Disorders of the spleen include massive splenomegaly, myelofibrosis, chronic myeloid leukemia, visceral leishmaniasis, malaria, Gaucher’s syndrome, portal hypertension, lymphoproliferative disease, haemolytic anaemia, infection, infective endocarditis, sickle-cell, thalassaemia, and rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      7.7
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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP after observing alterations in her facial appearance....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP after observing alterations in her facial appearance. She realized that the left side of her face was sagging that morning, and she couldn't entirely shut her left eye, and her smile was uneven. She is healthy and not taking any other medications. During the examination of her facial nerve, you observe that the left facial nerve has a complete lower motor neuron paralysis. What is the probable reason for this?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Bell's palsy

      Explanation:

      Bells palsy is believed to be caused by inflammation, which leads to swelling and compression of the facial nerve. This results in one-sided paralysis, with the most noticeable symptom being drooping of the mouth corner. The onset of symptoms occurs within 1-3 days and typically resolves within 1-3 months. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 40, and while most people recover, some may experience weakness.

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience postauricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 5-year-old male is found to have a small head, a smooth philtrum,...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old male is found to have a small head, a smooth philtrum, and epicanthic folds. He also experiences cyanosis when exerting himself and has difficulty eating due to a cleft palate. Based on this presentation, what is the child at higher risk for?

      Your Answer: Recurrent infections

      Explanation:

      The child’s symptoms suggest that they may have DiGeorge syndrome (22q11 deletion), which is characterized by thymus hypoplasia leading to recurrent infections. Other symptoms associated with this condition can be remembered using the acronym CATCH-22, which includes cardiac anomalies, abnormal facies, cleft palate, hypoparathyroidism leading to hypocalcaemia, and the location of the deletion on chromosome 22.

      Atopic conditions such as eczema, allergies, and asthma are also common in some individuals.

      Premature aortic sclerosis is often seen in individuals with Turner syndrome (45 XO), while pulmonary hypoplasia is associated with the Potter sequence. Elevated cholesterol levels may be caused by a genetic hypercholesterolaemia syndrome.

      DiGeorge syndrome, also known as velocardiofacial syndrome and 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is a primary immunodeficiency disorder that results from a microdeletion of a section of chromosome 22. This autosomal dominant condition is characterized by T-cell deficiency and dysfunction, which puts individuals at risk of viral and fungal infections. Other features of DiGeorge syndrome include hypoplasia of the parathyroid gland, which can lead to hypocalcaemic tetany, and thymus hypoplasia.

      The presentation of DiGeorge syndrome can vary, but it can be remembered using the mnemonic CATCH22. This stands for cardiac abnormalities, abnormal facies, thymic aplasia, cleft palate, hypocalcaemia/hypoparathyroidism, and the fact that it is caused by a deletion on chromosome 22. Overall, DiGeorge syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body and requires careful management and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      11.8
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  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor for a regular examination. She is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor for a regular examination. She is currently 34 weeks pregnant and plans to breastfeed her child. Breastmilk is known to contain various molecules that aid in reducing the incidence of infections in infants. Can you identify the type of antibody present in breastmilk that contributes to this effect?

      Your Answer: IgM

      Correct Answer: IgA

      Explanation:

      IgA is present in bodily secretions such as breast milk, saliva, tears, and mucus. It provides protection against common infections in newborns and is the only antibody found in significant levels in these secretions. IgG is the most common antibody in human serum and provides long-term immunity, but is not found in secretions. IgD is mainly found on immature B lymphocytes and is not present in secretions. IgM is the first antibody to appear in response to a new antigen, but is too large to pass through the placenta and is not found in secretions.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      53.8
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  • Question 22 - What category of hallucination does Jane experience when she hears someone calling her...

    Incorrect

    • What category of hallucination does Jane experience when she hears someone calling her name while being alone in the house?

      Your Answer: Auditory illusion

      Correct Answer: Hypnogogic hallucination

      Explanation:

      Types of Hallucinations

      Hypnogogic and hypnopompic hallucinations are two types of hallucinations that occur during the sleep cycle. Hypnogogic hallucinations happen when a person is falling asleep and can be auditory, visual, tactile, or kinaesthetic. On the other hand, hypnopompic hallucinations occur when a person is waking up, and the hallucination continues even after the person opens their eyes. These types of hallucinations are not indicative of any psychopathology and can occur in individuals with narcolepsy.

      Reflex hallucinations are another type of hallucination that occurs when a true sensory stimulus causes an hallucination in another sensory modality. Autoscopy is a unique experience where an individual sees themselves and knows that it is themselves. This experience is visual and is sometimes referred to as the ‘phantom mirror image.’ Finally, auditory illusions occur when an auditory stimulus is misrepresented or misinterpreted by the listener.

      In summary, there are various types of hallucinations that can occur in different stages of the sleep cycle or due to sensory stimuli. While these experiences may seem unusual, they do not necessarily indicate any underlying mental health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A one-year-old is brought to the paediatric team for assessment. The parents report...

    Incorrect

    • A one-year-old is brought to the paediatric team for assessment. The parents report that the child's right arm hangs loosely and does not move in coordination with the other limbs.

      Upon examination, an adducted, internally rotated right upper limb with an extended elbow is observed. However, movement of the right wrist appears normal.

      Based on these findings, where is the most likely location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: C5

      Correct Answer: C5 and C6

      Explanation:

      The infant’s arm is observed to be hanging loosely after a difficult forceps delivery, with adduction and internal rotation and extension of the elbow, indicating an injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus involving nerve roots C5 and C6. This is known as Erb’s palsy, which is commonly associated with difficult forceps deliveries and requires specialized management. Lower brachial plexus injuries affecting nerve roots C7 and C8 are less frequent and would cause wrist and forearm pathology rather than shoulder and elbow weakness. Isolated damage to the C6 nerve root is unlikely, as it is typically affected alongside the C5 nerve root.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 29-year-old woman, who is 30 weeks' pregnant, visits your clinic to discuss...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman, who is 30 weeks' pregnant, visits your clinic to discuss breast feeding. She expresses her interest in trying to breast feed her baby but would like to know more about best practices in neonatal feeding.

      What are the recommendations of the World Health Organization regarding breast feeding?

      Your Answer: 4 months' exclusive breast feeding

      Correct Answer: 6 months' exclusive breast feeding with gradual introduction of solid foods after this point

      Explanation:

      WHO Recommendations for Infant Feeding

      The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends early initiation of breast feeding, ideally from birth. Infants who are exclusively breast fed until six months have reduced risks of gastrointestinal infections compared to those who start weaning onto solid foods at three to four months. Breast feeding should continue on demand to 24 months or beyond, while solid food should be introduced gradually from six months. There should be a gradual increase in the consistency and variety of food offered. Infants who do not have ongoing breast feeding after six months will require fluid to be provided in an alternative form.

      In countries where there are particular risks of nutrient deficiencies, supplements can be provided. However, in most developed nations, nutrient supplements are not required. It is important to adhere to hygienic practices in the preparation of food. WHO recommends breast feeding in all situations, even for mothers who are HIV positive and infants who are HIV negative, provided that the mothers have satisfactory anti-retroviral therapy. In resource-poor situations, WHO considers that the positive benefits of breast feeding in a population causing improved infant mortality outweigh the risk of a minority of infants contracting HIV through breast milk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      52.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old African woman who recently moved to the US visits the pulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old African woman who recently moved to the US visits the pulmonary clinic with a 4-month history of productive cough with intermittent haemoptysis accompanied by weight loss, fevers and night sweats.

      Upon conducting a chest x-ray, opacification and calcification are observed in the apical area of the right lung.

      Which culture medium is necessary to cultivate the probable pathogen?

      Your Answer: Chocolate agar

      Correct Answer: Lowenstein-Jensen agar

      Explanation:

      Culture Requirements for Common Organisms

      Different microorganisms require specific culture conditions to grow and thrive. The table above lists some of the culture requirements for the more common organisms. For instance, Neisseria gonorrhoeae requires Thayer-Martin agar, which is a variant of chocolate agar, and the addition of Vancomycin, Polymyxin, and Nystatin to inhibit Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and fungal growth, respectively. Haemophilus influenzae, on the other hand, grows on chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin).

      To remember the culture requirements for some of these organisms, some mnemonics can be used. For example, Nice Homes have chocolate can help recall that Neisseria and Haemophilus grow on chocolate agar. If I Tell-U the Corny joke Right, you’ll Laugh can be used to remember that Corynebacterium diphtheriae grows on tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media. Lactating pink monkeys can help recall that lactose fermenting bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, grow on MacConkey agar resulting in pink colonies. Finally, BORDETella pertussis can be used to remember that Bordetella pertussis grows on Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      12.2
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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old female patient complains of a disrupted menstrual cycle, decreased libido, and...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female patient complains of a disrupted menstrual cycle, decreased libido, and lactation despite never being pregnant. Upon blood testing, she is found to have elevated serum prolactin levels. Which medication is associated with causing hyperprolactinemia?

      Your Answer: Cimetidine

      Explanation:

      Hyperprolactinaemia in Women

      Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition that affects women and is characterized by an excess of prolactin hormone in the body. This condition can present with various symptoms, including anovulatory infertility, reduced menstruation, production of breast milk, reduced libido, and vaginal dryness. The condition is caused by either disinhibition of the anterior pituitary or excess production due to a pituitary tumor. A serum prolactin concentration greater than 5000 mIU/L suggests a pituitary adenoma.

      Moreover, hyperprolactinaemia can also be caused by certain prescription medications, including antihistamines, butyrophenones, cimetidine, methyldopa, metoclopramide, and phenothiazines. These medications are strongly associated with the condition and can lead to an increase in prolactin levels in the body.

      It is important to understand the symptoms and causes of hyperprolactinaemia in women to seek appropriate medical attention and treatment. With proper diagnosis and management, women can effectively manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which one of the following structures lies deepest in the popliteal fossa? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following structures lies deepest in the popliteal fossa?

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve

      Correct Answer: Popliteal artery

      Explanation:

      Starting from the surface and moving towards the depths, the common peroneal nerve emerges from the popliteal fossa adjacent to the inner edge of the biceps tendon. Subsequently, the tibial nerve runs alongside the popliteal vessels, first posteriorly and then medially. The popliteal vein is situated above the popliteal artery, which is the most internal structure in the fossa.

      Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa

      The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped space located at the back of the knee joint. It is bound by various muscles and ligaments, including the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius. The floor of the popliteal fossa is formed by the popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of the knee joint, and popliteus muscle, while the roof is made up of superficial and deep fascia.

      The popliteal fossa contains several important structures, including the popliteal artery and vein, small saphenous vein, common peroneal nerve, tibial nerve, posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh, genicular branch of the obturator nerve, and lymph nodes. These structures are crucial for the proper functioning of the lower leg and foot.

      Understanding the anatomy of the popliteal fossa is important for healthcare professionals, as it can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting the knee joint and surrounding structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      8.4
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  • Question 28 - Which one of the following statements relating to the pancreas is not true?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements relating to the pancreas is not true?

      Your Answer: Cholecystokinin causes relaxation of the gallbladder

      Explanation:

      The contraction of the gallbladder is caused by CCK.

      The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      10.7
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  • Question 29 - Which muscle inserts onto the lesser tuberosity of the humerus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle inserts onto the lesser tuberosity of the humerus?

      Your Answer: Infraspinatus

      Correct Answer: Subscapularis

      Explanation:

      Most rotator cuff muscles insert into the greater tuberosity, except for subscapularis which inserts into the lesser tuberosity.

      The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      89.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - How many valves are present between the right atrium and the superior vena...

    Incorrect

    • How many valves are present between the right atrium and the superior vena cava (SVC)?

      Your Answer: Two

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      Inserting a CVP line from the internal jugular vein into the right atrium is relatively easy due to the absence of valves.

      The Superior Vena Cava: Anatomy, Relations, and Developmental Variations

      The superior vena cava (SVC) is a large vein that drains blood from the head and neck, upper limbs, thorax, and part of the abdominal walls. It is formed by the union of the subclavian and internal jugular veins, which then join to form the right and left brachiocephalic veins. The SVC is located in the anterior margins of the right lung and pleura, and is related to the trachea and right vagus nerve posteromedially, and the posterior aspects of the right lung and pleura posterolaterally. The pulmonary hilum is located posteriorly, while the right phrenic nerve and pleura are located laterally on the right side, and the brachiocephalic artery and ascending aorta are located laterally on the left side.

      Developmental variations of the SVC are recognized, including anomalies of its connection and interruption of the inferior vena cava (IVC) in its abdominal course. In some individuals, a persistent left-sided SVC may drain into the right atrium via an enlarged orifice of the coronary sinus, while in rare cases, the left-sided vena cava may connect directly with the superior aspect of the left atrium, usually associated with an unroofing of the coronary sinus. Interruption of the IVC may occur in patients with left-sided atrial isomerism, with drainage achieved via the azygos venous system.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy, relations, and developmental variations of the SVC is important for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      8.8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal System (1/3) 33%
Cardiovascular System (0/3) 0%
Basic Sciences (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (0/3) 0%
General Principles (3/7) 43%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Neurological System (1/3) 33%
Haematology And Oncology (1/3) 33%
Renal System (1/1) 100%
Reproductive System (0/1) 0%
Respiratory System (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
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