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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman gives birth to her second child. The baby is born...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman gives birth to her second child. The baby is born via normal vaginal delivery and weighs 3.8 kg. The baby has a normal Newborn and Infant Physical Examination (NIPE) after birth and the mother recovers well following the delivery. The mother wishes to breastfeed her baby and is supported to do so by the midwives on the ward.

      They are visited at home by the health visitor two weeks later. The health visitor asks how they have been getting on and the mother explains that she has been experiencing problems with breastfeeding and that her baby often struggles to latch on to her breast. She explains that this has made her very anxious that she is doing something wrong and has made her feel like she is failing as a mother. When her baby does manage to latch on to feed he occasionally gets reflux and vomits afterward. The health visitor weighs the baby who is now 3.4kg.

      What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Refer her to a midwife-led breastfeeding clinic

      Explanation:

      If a baby loses more than 10% of its birth weight, it is necessary to refer the mother and baby to a midwife for assistance in increasing the baby’s weight.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management

      Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.

      Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.

      Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.

      If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      31.4
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  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with a growth on the...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with a growth on the left side of his cheek. The growth has been present for around six months, and it is not causing any discomfort. Upon examination, it is a raised pearly papule with central telangiectasia and a rolled edge. The GP suspects it to be a basal cell carcinoma, measuring approximately 8 mm in diameter.
      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer the patient to Oncology for consideration of radiotherapy

      Correct Answer: Refer the patient routinely to Dermatology

      Explanation:

      Management of Basal Cell Carcinoma: Referral and Treatment Options

      Basal cell carcinomas (BCCs) are slow-growing skin cancers that require prompt referral to a dermatologist for assessment and management. While not urgent, referral should be routine to ensure timely treatment and prevent further growth and potential complications. Treatment options may include surgical excision, curettage and cautery, radiotherapy, or cryotherapy, depending on the size and location of the lesion.

      5-fluorouracil cream and diclofenac topical gel are not recommended for the treatment of BCCs but may be used for pre-malignant lesions such as solar keratoses. Referral to oncology for radiotherapy may be considered, but dermatology should be consulted first to explore less invasive treatment options.

      A watch-and-wait approach is not recommended for suspected BCCs, as delaying referral can lead to more extensive treatments and potential complications. All lesions suspected of malignancy should be referred to a specialist for further assessment and definitive treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      29
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old individual has recently undergone anterior resection for a rectal mass. The...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old individual has recently undergone anterior resection for a rectal mass. The histology report indicates that the adenocarcinoma is moderately differentiated and has invaded into the muscle, but not through the wall. One of the 13 lymph nodes examined has been found to be involved by metastatic tumour, but the high tie node is free of tumour. A liver biopsy from a suspicious lesion in the liver has shown 'no evidence of malignancy'. Can you determine the stage of this patient's cancer?

      Your Answer: Modified Dukes' C1

      Explanation:

      Dukes’ Classification for Colon Cancer

      Dukes’ classification is a system used to stage colon cancer based on the extent of tumor invasion and spread. Dukes’ A refers to tumors that are confined to the bowel wall, while Dukes’ B tumors have spread to the serosa. Dukes’ C1 tumors have spread to local nodes, but apical nodes are spared. On the other hand, Dukes’ C2 tumors involve the apical nodes, and Dukes’ D tumors have distant metastases, which carry the worst prognosis.

      It is important to understand Dukes’ classification as it helps in determining the appropriate treatment plan for patients with colon cancer. The stage of the cancer is a crucial factor in deciding the best course of action, including surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy. By accurately staging the cancer, doctors can provide patients with the most effective treatment options and improve their chances of survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      87.4
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  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old woman presents with gradual onset proximal shoulder and pelvic girdle muscular...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with gradual onset proximal shoulder and pelvic girdle muscular pains and stiffness. She is experiencing difficulty getting dressed in the morning and cannot raise her arms above the horizontal. She is currently taking atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and recently completed a course of clarithromycin for a lower respiratory tract infection (penicillin-allergic). Blood tests were conducted, and the results are as follows:

      Hb 128 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      WBC 12.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Platelets 380 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 6.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 66 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      Bilirubin 10 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 64 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 32 u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT 55 u/L (8 - 60)
      Albumin 37 g/L (35 - 50)
      CRP 72 mg/L (< 5)
      ESR 68 mg/L (< 30)
      Creatine kinase 58 U/L (35 - 250)

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with an increase in creatine kinase levels. Instead, blood tests typically reveal signs of inflammation, such as elevated white blood cell count, C-reactive protein, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate. These findings, combined with the patient’s medical history and demographic information, strongly suggest polymyalgia rheumatica as the diagnosis. In contrast, conditions such as polymyositis and dermatomyositis typically involve a significant rise in creatine kinase levels, and dermatomyositis also presents with a distinctive rash. Fibromyalgia does not typically show any signs of inflammation on blood tests. While statin-induced myopathy is a possibility based on the patient’s history, the absence of elevated creatine kinase levels makes this diagnosis less likely.

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      36.1
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old female presents with pain and stiffness in her left knee, which...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female presents with pain and stiffness in her left knee, which she’s had for the last 4 months. On further questioning, she also has pain and stiffness in her right wrist and the distal interphalangeal joint of her left index finger. Her symptoms are worse in the morning and seem to improve throughout the day. She reports that her late mother also had joint problems; but does not know the diagnosis, although she recalls that her fingers were completely swollen before she started treatment.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      In many instances, arthritis symptoms are identified prior to the onset of psoriasis. Symmetrical polyarthritis is a common manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.

      The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.

      To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      53.8
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old man was admitted for an endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography (ERCP) due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man was admitted for an endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography (ERCP) due to biliary colic. He had an uneventful procedure, but was re-admitted the same night with severe abdominal pain. He is tachycardic, short of breath, and has a pleural effusion on his chest X-ray (CXR). His blood tests show C-reactive protein (CRP) 200 mg/litre, white cell count (WCC) 16 × 109/litre, creatine 150 µmol/litre, urea 8 mmol/litre, phosphate 1.1 mmol/litre, calcium 0.7 mmol/litre.
      What is his most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Biliary perforation

      Correct Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing and Managing Complications of ERCP: A Case Study

      A patient presents with abdominal pain, hypocalcaemia, and a pleural effusion several hours after undergoing an ERCP. The most likely diagnosis is pancreatitis, a known complication of the procedure. Immediate management includes confirming the diagnosis and severity of pancreatitis, aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation, oxygen, and adequate analgesia. Severe cases may require transfer to intensive care. Intestinal and biliary perforation are unlikely causes, as they would have presented with immediate post-operative pain. A reaction to contrast would have occurred during the procedure. Another possible complication is ascending cholangitis, which presents with fever, jaundice, and abdominal pain, but is unlikely to cause hypocalcaemia or a pleural effusion. It is important to promptly diagnose and manage complications of ERCP to prevent severe complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old woman is being seen on the postnatal ward 3 days after...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is being seen on the postnatal ward 3 days after an uncomplicated, elective lower-segment caesarean section. This is her first child and she is eager to exclusively breastfeed. Her lochia is normal and she is able to move around independently. She is scheduled to be discharged later in the day and is interested in starting contraception right away. She has previously used both the combined oral contraceptive pill and an intrauterine device, both of which worked well for her. What options should be presented to her?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine device fitting in hospital before she is discharged

      Correct Answer: Progesterone-only pill to start immediately

      Explanation:

      Women who have recently given birth, whether they are breastfeeding or not, can begin taking the progesterone-only pill at any time. However, for this patient who is only 2 days postpartum, it is recommended to prescribe the progesterone-only pill as it does not contain estrogen and is less likely to affect milk production. Additionally, it does not increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, which is a concern for postpartum women until 21-28 days after giving birth. The combined oral contraceptive pill should be avoided until 21 days postpartum due to the risk of thrombosis and reduced breast milk production. The patient cannot resume her previous contraceptives at this time. While an intrauterine device can be inserted during a caesarean section, it is advisable to wait 4-6 weeks postpartum before having it inserted vaginally. It is incorrect to tell the patient that she cannot use any contraception if she wishes to breastfeed, as the progesterone-only pill has been shown to have minimal effect on milk production in breastfeeding women.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old man has been admitted to the psychiatric ward under section 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man has been admitted to the psychiatric ward under section 2 of the mental health act for suspected first-episode psychosis. During his mental state examination, burns are observed on his arms and he claims that insects are burrowing into his skin. He suggests that the burns are caused by bleach. The evaluating psychiatrist could not detect any insects, and when questioned, the patient became agitated and insisted that his skin was infested. What is the most probable disorder being described?

      Your Answer: Cotard delusion

      Correct Answer: Delusional parasitosis

      Explanation:

      The patient in the scenario is experiencing delusional parasitosis, a psychiatric disorder characterized by a fixed, false belief that one is infested by parasites or ‘bugs’. This delusion can lead to extreme measures to try to eradicate the perceived infestation. Delusional parasitosis is also known as Ekbom syndrome. Capgras delusion, Cotard’s delusion, and formication are not applicable in this case.

      Understanding Delusional Parasitosis

      Delusional parasitosis is a condition that is not commonly known but can be debilitating for those who suffer from it. It is characterized by a persistent and false belief that one is infested with bugs, parasites, mites, bacteria, or fungus. This delusion can occur on its own or in conjunction with other psychiatric conditions. Despite the delusion, patients may still be able to function normally in other aspects of their lives.

      In simpler terms, delusional parasitosis is a rare condition where a person believes they have bugs or other organisms living on or inside their body, even though there is no evidence to support this belief. This can cause significant distress and anxiety for the individual, and they may go to great lengths to try and rid themselves of the perceived infestation. It is important for those who suspect they may be suffering from delusional parasitosis to seek professional help, as treatment can greatly improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      29.8
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old man (with known metastatic pancreatic cancer) presented with severe obstructive jaundice...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man (with known metastatic pancreatic cancer) presented with severe obstructive jaundice and signs of hepatic encephalopathy. He was treated with a biliary stent (percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC)) and discharged when his jaundice, confusion and pruritus had started to improve. He re-presented shortly after discharge with rigors, pyrexia and feeling generally unwell. His blood cultures showed Gram-negative rods.
      What is the most likely cause of his current presentation?

      Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Fever and Rigors in a Patient with a Biliary Stent

      Introduction:
      A patient with a biliary stent inserted via endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) presents with fever and rigors. This article discusses the possible causes of these symptoms.

      Possible Causes:
      1. Ascending Cholangitis: This is the most likely option as the patient’s biliary stent and the ERCP procedure are both well-known risk factors for acute cholangitis. The obstruction caused by the stent can lead to recurrent biliary sepsis, which can be life-threatening and requires prompt treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics and IV fluids.

      2. Lower Respiratory Tract Infection: Sedation and endoscopy increase the risk of pulmonary infection, particularly aspiration. However, the biliary stent itself is the biggest risk factor, and the patient’s symptoms point towards ascending cholangitis.

      3. Hepatitis: This is an unlikely cause of fever and rigors as there are no risk factors for common causes of acute hepatitis, and Gram-negative rods are not a common cause of hepatitis.

      4. Metastatic Pancreatic Cancer: While this condition can increase the risk of infection due to immunocompromised, it does not fully explain the patient’s presentation as it would not cause frank fever and rigors.

      5. Pyelonephritis: This bacterial infection of the kidney can cause pyrexia, rigors, and malaise, with Gram-negative rods, especially E. coli, as common causes. However, the recent biliary stent insertion puts this patient at high risk of ascending cholangitis.

      Conclusion:
      In conclusion, the most likely cause of fever and rigors in a patient with a biliary stent is ascending cholangitis. However, other possible causes should also be considered and ruled out through appropriate diagnostic tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      42.8
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  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old man is receiving a 2 units of blood transfusion for anaemia...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man is receiving a 2 units of blood transfusion for anaemia of unknown cause – haemoglobin (Hb) 65 g/l (normal 135–175 g/l). During the third hour of the blood transfusion he spikes a temperature of 38.1°C (normal 36.1–37.2°C). Otherwise the patient is asymptomatic and his other observations are normal.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what should you do?

      Your Answer: Temporarily stop transfusion, repeat clerical checks. Then treat with paracetamol and repeat observations more regularly (every 15 minutes)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Non-Haemolytic Febrile Transfusion Reaction

      Non-haemolytic febrile transfusion reaction is a common acute reaction to plasma proteins during blood transfusions. If a patient experiences this reaction, the transfusion should be temporarily stopped, and clerical checks should be repeated. The patient should be treated with paracetamol, and observations should be repeated more regularly (every 15 minutes).

      If the patient’s temperature is less than 38.5 degrees, and they are asymptomatic with normal observations, the transfusion can be continued with more frequent observations and paracetamol. However, if the patient experiences transfusion-associated circulatory overload, furosemide is a suitable treatment option.

      Adrenaline is not needed unless there are signs of anaphylaxis, and antihistamines are only suitable for urticaria during blood transfusions. Therefore, it is essential to identify the specific type of transfusion reaction and provide appropriate treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      15
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Passmed