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Question 1
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of blurred vision in her right eye for the past few months. She also reports seeing crooked or wavy lines in the center of her right visual field. The left eye appears to be unaffected, and she has never used glasses or contact lenses. During the examination, a central scotoma is observed in the right eye.
What is the MOST probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary open-angle glaucoma
Correct Answer: Age related macular degeneration
Explanation:Macular degeneration causes loss of vision in the central field, while primary open-angle glaucoma results in loss of vision in the peripheral field.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the surgery with tiredness and lethargy. She had read on the internet that people with tiredness can have coeliac disease and had seen one of your partners who arranged some blood tests. She has now come back for the results.
She has heavy, regular menstrual periods, but no other significant past medical or family history. Specifically there are no symptoms of irritable bowel, indigestion or diarrhoea.
On examination her BP is 100/60 mmHg, pulse is 85 bpm and regular. She looks a little pale. Abdominal and PR examination normal. There are no other significant findings.
Investigations conducted by your colleague reveal:
Haemoglobin 90 g/L (115-165)
MCV 76 fL (80-96)
Ferritin 13 μg/L (15-300)
Anti-TTG antibodies negative
Urine dip negative
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Urgent referral to colorectal (<2 week wait)
Correct Answer: Trial of iron supplementation
Explanation:Management of Iron Deficiency Anaemia
Iron deficiency anaemia is a common condition that can present with symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath. In a 28-year-old woman with normal menses and no signs of gastrointestinal bleeding, a trial of iron supplementation for three months is appropriate to establish whether ferritin levels increase and haemoglobin normalises. Although a negative anti-TTG test is possible in patients with selective IgA deficiency, the absence of bowel symptoms makes underlying coeliac disease unlikely.
If there are no other symptoms and signs, urgent referral to colorectal under the two-week wait is necessary for unexplained iron deficiency anaemia in a male with a Hb of <120 g/L or a non-menstruating female with a Hb of <100 g/L. Upper and lower GI endoscopy would only be considered if there is a failure of ferritin level and anaemia to respond to iron supplementation. Proper management of iron deficiency anaemia is crucial to prevent complications and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You see a 12-year-old boy with an unusual pattern of bruising on his back. He is accompanied by his older sister who is aged 20, as the mother is unwell. The boy says he fell awkwardly while at school.
After the consultation, the older sibling tells the boy to wait in the waiting room and then tells you that she thinks that her mother is hitting the boy. She asks you not to say anything as she doesn't want to get her mother into trouble.
How would you manage this situation?Your Answer: You should ask the child to come back with his father
Correct Answer: You should refer the child to a haematologist to investigate the bruising
Explanation:Responding to Suspected Child Abuse in a Medical Setting
When presented with possible cases of child abuse, it is our duty to be vigilant and take action. If a child discloses abuse to you in a medical setting, it is important to respond appropriately. The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) has produced a toolkit to assist practices in managing suspected cases of abuse.
If a child discloses abuse to you, it is important to stay calm and listen actively to what they are saying. Find an appropriate opportunity to explain that the information will likely need to be shared with others and avoid promising to keep secrets. Allow the child to continue at their own pace and ask only clarifying questions, avoiding leading questions.
Reassure the child that they have done the right thing by telling you and explain what you will do next and with whom the information will be shared. It is important to record what has been said in writing, using the child’s own words as much as possible, and noting the date, time, any names mentioned, and to whom the information was given. Do not delay passing this information on.
In summary, responding to suspected child abuse in a medical setting requires active listening, appropriate communication, and prompt action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old obese man has hyperpigmented, thickened, velvety skin, with surrounding skin tags in both axillae.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Melasma
Correct Answer: Acanthosis nigricans
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Hyperpigmented Skin: Acanthosis Nigricans, Erythrasma, Melasma, Necrobiosis Lipoidica Diabeticorum, and Post-Inflammatory Hyperpigmentation
Hyperpigmented skin can be caused by a variety of conditions. One possible cause is acanthosis nigricans, which presents with thick, velvety skin in the neck and flexures, often accompanied by skin tags. This condition is commonly associated with obesity and hereditary factors. However, it can also be a sign of an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.
Another possible cause of hyperpigmented skin is erythrasma, a bacterial infection that causes pink-red macules that turn brown, typically in the groin and axilla. However, the bilateral distribution of the pigmentation in this case makes erythrasma less likely.
Melasma is another condition that can cause hyperpigmentation, but it typically presents with symmetrical blotchy brown pigmentation on the face. The distribution described in the scenario makes melasma less likely.
Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is a rare condition that affects the shins of people with diabetes. However, the distribution of the pigmentation in this case rules out this condition as a cause.
Finally, post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation can occur after trauma such as burns, causing flat macules. However, it doesn’t cause skin thickening, as described in this case.
In summary, the differential diagnosis for hyperpigmented skin includes acanthosis nigricans, erythrasma, melasma, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum, and post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation. A thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are seeing a teenage patient who has been diagnosed with PTSD.
He has previously been treated with sertraline but wants to stop because of a rash.
He has a review appointment with a psychiatrist in 3 months. Assuming any appropriate cross tapering and initiation, what alternative treatment could you prescribe instead?Your Answer: Venlafaxine
Correct Answer: Buspirone
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Drug Treatments for PTSD in Adults
The NICE guidance on the management of PTSD was updated in 2018, and there were a few changes from earlier guidance. One of the changes was regarding drug treatments for adults with PTSD. According to the latest NICE guidance NG116, benzodiazepines should not be offered as a drug treatment to prevent PTSD in adults. However, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, can be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if they have a preference for drug treatment. It is important to review this treatment regularly.
In addition, antipsychotics such as risperidone can be considered, along with psychological therapies, to manage symptoms for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if they have disabling symptoms and behaviors, such as severe hyperarousal or psychotic symptoms, and their symptoms have not responded to other drug or psychological treatments. It is important that antipsychotic treatment is started and reviewed regularly by a specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the electronic fit note (eMed) is accurate?
Your Answer: Handwritten fit notes will no longer be used following the introduction of the eMed
Correct Answer: A printed copy of the electronic fit note is handed to the patient
Explanation:The eMed Initiative: Electronic Fit Notes
The eMed initiative is a project by the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) aimed at replacing handwritten fit notes with electronically printed ones. This new system will be integrated into existing electronic record systems, such as EMIS, and stored alongside the patient’s record. The printed note will be given to the patient, who will use it in the same way as a handwritten note.
It is important to note that the electronic fit note will not be sent electronically to the employer, patient, or DWP. However, the DWP plans to collect anonymous data on sick notes in the future to inform policy development.
Despite the introduction of the eMed initiative, GPs will still be able to issue handwritten notes during home visits. Hospital doctors will also not be switching to the new system. The eMed initiative is a step towards modernizing the healthcare system and improving efficiency in the issuance of fit notes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old gentleman comes to the clinic complaining of worsening lower urinary tract symptoms that have been affecting his quality of life for the past three months. He reports experiencing increased hesitancy, weak urine stream, and a feeling of incomplete emptying. Upon examination, his abdomen and genitals appear normal, while a PR exam reveals a smooth, enlarged prostate. His urine dipstick is negative, and his PSA level is 1.3ng/mL. He denies experiencing any weight loss, fevers, or new bone or back pain. He is currently taking tamsulosin to alleviate his symptoms. What is the most appropriate additional medical therapy to offer this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxybutynin
Explanation:Management of Lower Urinary Tract Symptoms
Managing lower urinary tract symptoms is a crucial aspect of general practice. It is essential to distinguish between the causes of these symptoms to make the correct management decisions. For obstructive symptoms, 5-alpha reductase inhibitors such as finasteride play a vital role in causing prostatic shrinkage by inhibiting the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, which is an important prostatic growth factor.
However, alpha blockers such as alfuzosin and doxazosin would not be appropriate choices as they are already present in the form of tamsulosin. On the other hand, antimuscarinic medications like oxybutynin and tolterodine are used in the management of overactive bladder, which is more likely to present with symptoms of urgency and frequency rather than obstructive symptoms.
In summary, understanding the underlying cause of lower urinary tract symptoms is crucial in determining the appropriate management strategy. 5-alpha reductase inhibitors are effective in managing obstructive symptoms, while alpha blockers and antimuscarinic medications are more suitable for other types of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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In education literature there is much discussion over the notion of ICE (Ideas, Concerns, and Expectation).
Why do teachers use this phrase?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To meet the criteria on the MRCGP marking schedule
Explanation:Understanding the Patient Agenda with ICE
Patients attend medical appointments for various reasons, and it is crucial for doctors to address their concerns and expectations to be effective communicators. This is known as the Patient Agenda, which can be explored using the Ideas, Concerns, and Expectations (ICE) instrument.
For instance, a patient with a sore throat may have different reasons for attending. It could be due to their belief that any illness should be brought to the doctor’s attention or a worry that the sore throat is a symptom of a more severe condition.
As doctors, it is essential to understand the patient’s agenda to provide appropriate care. However, asking patients what they think is wrong may not always yield helpful responses. Some patients may respond with You’re the doctor, you tell me, which can be uncomfortable.
In conclusion, understanding the patient agenda and using ICE can help doctors address patients’ concerns and expectations effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man comes in for his annual heart failure check-up. He reports feeling physically well and is able to perform all his daily activities without any chest symptoms.
All his vital signs are within normal limits, with a heart rate of 76 beats per minute and blood pressure of 135/80 mmHg. His weight has remained stable since his last visit.
During the examination, his pulse is regular, and his heart sounds are normal. There is no raised JVP, and his chest is clear. There is minimal pitting edema around both ankles.
Reviewing his heart failure medications, he is currently taking:
- Ramipril 10 mg once daily
- Bisoprolol 10 mg once daily
- Furosemide 40 mg once a day
Assuming there are no contraindications and with the patient's consent, what would be the most appropriate next step to take during his review?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ensure patient is listed for annual influenza vaccination
Explanation:As part of the comprehensive lifestyle approach to managing heart failure, it is recommended to offer an annual influenza vaccine. While pneumococcal vaccination should also be provided to patients with heart failure, it doesn’t need to be administered every year. The patient in question is already taking the maximum doses of ramipril and bisoprolol approved for heart failure treatment, and their blood pressure is well-managed with their current medications. Currently, there are no indications that increasing the dose of furosemide would benefit the patient’s heart failure management, and it may even cause harm such as electrolyte imbalances.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 2-year-old girl who is brought in by her father. She has had a fever overnight, along with a sore throat and cough. Her father is worried that she seems more tired than usual today. During the examination, you note the following:
Temperature 38.5 degrees
Heart rate 160 bpm
Respiratory rate 40 / min
Oxygen saturation 95%
The lungs are clear, but there is inflammation and redness in the throat, and there are swollen lymph nodes in the neck.
According to the NICE traffic light system for assessing fever in children, which of the following is considered 'amber'?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heart rate 155 bpm
Explanation:The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A mother has brought her 4-year-old son to see you as she is worried about a lump in his neck.
Which of the following characteristics would worry you the most and would warrant an urgent referral?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Firm, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy
Explanation:When to Worry About Lymph Node Enlargement in Children
Lymphadenopathy, or lymph node enlargement, is a common occurrence in children. In most cases, it is benign and resolves on its own. However, there are certain characteristics that warrant urgent referral to a healthcare provider. These include non-tender, firm or hard lymph nodes, nodes larger than 2 cm, progressively enlarging nodes, general ill-health, fever or weight loss, involvement of axillary nodes (in the absence of local infection or dermatitis), or involvement of supraclavicular nodes.
It is important to note that these characteristics are particularly concerning if there is no evidence of local infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old heavy smoker (40 cigarettes per day) has a past history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation. Over the past few months he has suffered a chronic cough and has lost approximately 2 stone (about 12.5 kg) in weight. He has been increasingly drowsy over the past few days and his relatives were unable to rouse him this morning. On examination he has a Glasgow Coma Score of 6 and you notice that he has been incontinent of urine and faeces.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this clinical presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metastatic carcinoma with cerebral metastases
Explanation:Urgent CT Scanning for Deteriorating Conscious Level in a Heavy Smoker with a History of Chronic Cough and Weight Loss
This patient’s history of chronic cough and weight loss raises the possibility of bronchial carcinoma, which may have metastasized to the brain. The progressively deteriorating conscious level suggests increasing cerebral edema, which is a common complication of cerebral metastases. While stroke and glioblastoma are possible alternative diagnoses, they are less likely given the patient’s history. A meningioma is slow-growing, and subarachnoid hemorrhage typically presents with a sudden severe headache.
Urgent CT scanning is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment. Medical treatment may include dexamethasone with or without mannitol IV to reduce cerebral edema. However, even with treatment, the prognosis for this type of presentation is extremely poor.
Intracranial tumors can be caused by metastases, malignant primary brain tumors, or benign brain tumors. Metastases account for around 50% of cases, while malignant primary brain tumors and benign brain tumors account for around 35% and 10%, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and peripheral artery disease is prescribed ramipril for newly diagnosed stage 2 hypertension. After 10 days, his repeat U&Es show a decline in renal function. What is the probable cause of this deterioration?
Before starting ramipril, his U&Es were within normal limits, with a sodium level of 141 mmol/L (135 - 145), potassium level of 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), bicarbonate level of 24 mmol/L (22 - 29), urea level of 3.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and creatinine level of 78 µmol/L (55 - 120). However, ten days later, his U&Es showed an increase in urea level to 8.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0) and creatinine level to 128 µmol/L (55 - 120), while his sodium and potassium levels remained stable and his bicarbonate level increased to 26 mmol/L (22 - 29).Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bilateral renal artery stenosis
Explanation:If a patient with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis starts taking an ACE inhibitor, they may experience significant renal impairment. Therefore, it is important to consider the possibility of bilateral renal artery stenosis in patients with risk factors for atherosclerotic vascular disease, especially if they develop hypertension later in life and experience a sudden drop in renal function after starting an ACE inhibitor. This acute decline in renal function is not consistent with chronic kidney conditions like diabetic or hypertensive nephropathy. Glomerulonephritis or pre-renal acute kidney injury from dehydration are unlikely based on the information provided.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with an obvious broken nose and an inability to breathe through either nostril. Examination reveals a cherry-red swelling in both nasal airways.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Review immediately for examination under anaesthetic
Explanation:This patient has a condition called septal hematoma, which can lead to a hole in the septum if not treated promptly. This happens because the hematoma restricts blood flow to the cartilage and can become infected. To diagnose this condition, a doctor will use a nasal speculum or otoscope to look for asymmetry and swelling in the septum. They may also need to feel the septum with a gloved finger. Septal hematoma is usually caused by significant facial trauma in adults, but even minor nasal trauma can cause it in children. If a child has this condition, it may be a sign of abuse. Immediate drainage under anesthesia is necessary to prevent long-term damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man presents with complaints of leg pains. He has a medical history of hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia, and is a smoker of 20 cigarettes a day.
He reports experiencing pain in his right calf after walking about 50 yards, which occurs every time he walks. The pain subsides when he stops and sits down, but returns upon further walking. He denies any pain at rest and has only experienced symptoms while walking.
Upon examination, no pulses can be palpated in the right foot, but there is no evidence of acute ischaemia. Femoral and popliteal pulses are present, and capillary refill time in the right foot is three to four seconds. There are no ulcers or tissue loss affecting the feet. The patient is otherwise well, with a blood pressure of 154/92 mmHg and a regular pulse rate of 72 bpm.
In addition to referring the patient for ankle-brachial pressure index measurements to confirm the clinical diagnosis, what other assessments should be performed as part of his primary care evaluation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urine dipstick
Explanation:Peripheral Arterial Disease Assessment in Primary Care
This patient is presenting with symptoms and signs of peripheral arterial disease, specifically intermittent claudication. It is important to note that peripheral arterial disease increases the risk of arteriopathy in other parts of the body, such as the heart and kidneys. Therefore, a full cardiovascular risk factor assessment should be conducted on diagnosis, with key risk factors addressed as relevant.
In primary care, ankle brachial pressure index should be measured in all patients suspected of having peripheral arterial disease, along with an examination of peripheral pulses and palpation of the abdomen to check for the presence of an aortic aneurysm. It is important to note that the presence of peripheral vascular disease significantly increases the risk of aortic aneurysm.
Contrast studies are not typically conducted as part of a primary care assessment. Instead, the focus should be on managing lower limb symptoms and addressing cardiovascular risk factors. By doing so, primary care providers can help reduce the risk of complications and improve overall patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 16
Incorrect
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In a study comparing a drug aimed at reducing the risk of cardiovascular events with a placebo, data was collected from two groups of 1000 individuals each. The placebo group had 150 cardiovascular events while the drug treatment group had 100. What is the correct percentage absolute risk reduction based on these results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5%
Explanation:Calculation of Absolute Risk Reduction
Absolute risk reduction (ARR) is a statistical measure used to determine the effectiveness of a drug or treatment. It is calculated by subtracting the percentage of events that occurred in the placebo group from the percentage of events that occurred in the group receiving the drug or treatment. For example, if the event rate in the placebo group is 15% and the event rate in the drug group is 10%, the ARR would be 5%. This measure provides valuable information about the actual benefit of a drug or treatment in reducing the risk of a particular event.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents after a fall she had the previous night while walking in the dark. She believes she tripped on a curb and fell onto her left side, causing pain in her chest. On examination, she is tender over the lower ribs on the left side but has no respiratory distress, and her chest appears normal. She is typically active and walks about six miles per week. She is retired but still enjoys gardening and volunteering at a local charity shop.
What is the most crucial management consideration for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Identify if there is a need to prevent or treat osteoporosis
Explanation:Preventing and Treating Osteoporosis: A Case Study
In the National Service Framework for Older People, general practitioners are reminded of the importance of assessing the risk of osteoporosis and identifying those who need prevention or treatment. This is particularly relevant for older individuals who may experience minor falls or injuries, which can seriously restrict their ability to carry out normal activities at home.
In the case of a patient who has fallen and potentially fractured ribs, it is important to consider the risk of further falls and the potential for more serious fractures. While no specific treatment may be required for the current injury, this episode presents an opportunity to assess the patient’s risk of osteoporosis and take preventative measures.
While options such as arranging an occupational therapy review of home safety or referring to a specialist falls service may be appropriate in certain circumstances, they are not necessary in this case. Similarly, referring to physiotherapy for an exercise program or to the Accident & Emergency Department is not necessary.
Overall, the focus should be on assessing the patient’s risk of osteoporosis and taking preventative measures to reduce the risk of future falls and fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pain and visual loss in one eye that has been progressively worsening over the past three days. She reports feeling fine otherwise and has no other symptoms. The patient was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) ten years ago and has experienced four acute relapses since.
What is the best course of treatment for this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methylprednisolone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Relapse in Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis (MS) patients experiencing sudden increases in symptoms or significant new symptoms should seek medical attention. A course of oral or intravenous methylprednisolone treatment is required to manage acute relapse. However, before steroids are considered, a urinary tract or other infection should be excluded as the cause for the exacerbation.
Research suggests that a reduced level of vitamin D in the blood is a risk factor for developing MS. Although studies are underway to determine if vitamin D levels influence disease activity, there is not enough evidence to suggest that treatment with vitamin D in the acute phase is warranted.
Interferon beta and terifluonamide are disease-modifying drugs used to treat relapsing-remitting MS. They are used to reduce the incidence of relapse but have no role in managing acute relapse.
Natalizumab is a recombinant humanised monoclonal antibody used as a second-line drug to reduce relapse. However, it doesn’t have a role in the management of acute relapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with liver failure underwent successful transplantation 3 months ago. He has now developed progressive renal failure.
Select the single most likely cause.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciclosporin
Explanation:Immunosuppressive Therapy for Liver Transplant Rejection: Drugs and Potential Side Effects
Liver transplant rejection can be prevented through a combination of drugs, including a calcineurin inhibitor, steroids, and azathioprine. Subsequent immunosuppression may involve tacrolimus or ciclosporin alone, or dual therapy with either azathioprine or mycophenolate. However, these drugs can also cause various side effects.
Ciclosporin toxicity, for instance, can lead to chronic renal failure in patients who have received different types of allografts. It may also cause a dose-dependent increase in serum creatinine and urea, which may require dose reduction or discontinuation. Azathioprine can cause blood dyscrasias and liver impairment, while mycophenolate mofetil can cause hypogammaglobulinaemia, bronchiectasis, and pulmonary fibrosis. Prednisolone, on the other hand, doesn’t affect renal function.
It is important to monitor patients for potential side effects and adjust the dosage or switch to alternative drugs as needed. Additionally, it is unlikely that perioperative causes of renal dysfunction will be significant three months after surgery. About 10-20% of patients taking tacrolimus may develop calcineurin inhibitor-related renal impairment five years after transplant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A parent brings her 6-year-old daughter to the clinic with concerns about her health since starting first grade. The child has developed various new symptoms, and the parent suspects a food allergy as the symptoms improve during breaks from school. Which of the following symptoms would suggest a non-IgE-mediated allergy rather than an IgE-mediated allergy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atopic eczema
Explanation:A non-IgE mediated food allergy is indicated by the presence of atopic eczema.
Food allergies in children and young people can be categorized as either IgE-mediated or non-IgE-mediated. It is important to note that food intolerance is not caused by immune system dysfunction and is not covered by the 2011 NICE guidelines. Symptoms of IgE-mediated allergies include skin reactions such as pruritus, erythema, urticaria, and angioedema, as well as gastrointestinal and respiratory symptoms. Non-IgE-mediated allergies may present with symptoms such as gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, loose or frequent stools, and abdominal pain. If the history suggests an IgE-mediated allergy, skin prick tests or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to suspected foods and co-allergens should be offered. If the history suggests a non-IgE-mediated allergy, the suspected allergen should be eliminated for 2-6 weeks and then reintroduced, with consultation from a dietitian for nutritional adequacies, timings, and follow-up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with familial hypercholesterolaemia presents for a check-up. She is considering starting a family and seeks guidance on medication, as she is currently taking 80 mg of atorvastatin. What would be the most suitable recommendation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop atorvastatin before trying to conceive
Explanation:To avoid the possibility of congenital defects, it is recommended that women discontinue the use of statins at least 3 months prior to conception.
Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.
To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.
The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.
Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female comes to you requesting a termination of pregnancy. She tells you that her boyfriend is 18-years-old.
Having asked a number of questions about the relationship you do not have reason to suspect that it is abusive. The patient seems to be mature for her age, understands what you are telling her about her options and appears capable of deciding for herself what she wants to do. You cannot persuade her to inform her parents that she is pregnant.
The girl's mother makes an appointment the following day and tells you that she knows her daughter has been to see you. She says that she is worried about her daughter, and asks you to tell her whether you have given her daughter any family planning advice.
What is the most appropriate action to take in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inform the police because underage sex is against the law, and do not tell the patient or her mother that you are doing so
Explanation:Confidentiality and Capacity of Minors
At the age of 15, a patient is not yet considered an adult, but if they are deemed capable of making decisions about the disclosure of information, they are entitled to confidentiality. This is known as Gillick (Fraser) competence, which allows minors under the age of 16 to give valid consent without parental knowledge or agreement in certain circumstances.
While there is no obligation to report a crime, if a doctor suspects that a patient is at risk of serious harm, such as abuse, they should take action. It is recommended to discuss such cases with a child protection lead or medical defence organization to ensure that the decision to disclose or withhold information is justified and documented. Ultimately, the goal is to protect the patient’s well-being while respecting their right to confidentiality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 65-year old man comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual decline in his vision over the past month. He reports difficulty reading small print and noticing that straight lines appear distorted. Additionally, he has noticed a grey spot in the center of his vision. Upon examination, his visual acuity is 20/30 in both eyes. Ophthalmoscopy reveals choroidal neovascularization. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Age-related macular degeneration
Explanation:If an individual experiences a combination of age, gradual loss of vision, blurring of small words, and straight lines appearing ‘curvy’, it is important to consider the possibility of age-related macular degeneration. It is possible for visual acuity to remain normal in this case. Wet age-related macular degeneration is characterized by neovascularization.
Acute closed angle glaucoma is typically accompanied by pain, headache, red eye, and the classic symptom of ‘halos around objects’. Retinal artery occlusion is an acute event that usually results in dense central visual loss (if the central retinal artery is occluded) or a sectional visual field defect (if a branch retinal artery is occluded). Diabetic retinopathy is typically seen in individuals with a known diagnosis of diabetes. They may be asymptomatic for a significant period before experiencing symptoms such as floaters, blurring, and distortion. A macular hole presents similarly to age-related macular degeneration, with slow onset central visual loss and sometimes distortion. However, ophthalmoscopy would reveal a well-defined round or oval lesion in the macula with yellow deposits at the base. Choroidal neovascularization is not a characteristic symptom in the scenario described.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes in asking for a prescription for Microgynon 30. What is the most significant contraindication for using this medication if it is present?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Previous deep vein thrombosis
Explanation:Contraindications for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential cautions and contraindications on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 represents a condition for which there is no restriction for the use of the contraceptive method, while UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, immobility, and a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension.
In 2016, the UKMEC was updated to reflect that breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum is now classified as UKMEC 2 instead of UKMEC 3. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. It is important for healthcare providers to consider these contraindications when deciding whether to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill to their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man visits your clinic with a concern about spots on his face, neck, and trunk that have been present for a few months. Despite using an over-the-counter facial wash, the spots have not improved. The patient is becoming increasingly self-conscious about them and seeks treatment. Upon examination, you observe comedones and inflamed lesions on his face, as well as nodules, pustules, and scarring. The patient is in good health, with normal vital signs.
What is the most appropriate initial approach to managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to dermatology
Explanation:A patient with severe acne, including scarring, hyperpigmentation, and widespread pustules, should be referred to a dermatologist for specialized treatment. In this case, the patient has nodules, pustules, and scarring, indicating the need for consideration of oral isotretinoin. A trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide would not be appropriate for severe and widespread acne, but may be suitable for mild to moderate cases. Same-day hospital admission is unnecessary for a patient with normal observations and no other health concerns. A review in 2 months is not appropriate for severe acne, which should be managed with topical therapies, oral antibiotics, or referral to a dermatologist. Topical antibiotics are also not recommended for severe and widespread acne, and a dermatology referral is necessary for this patient with lesions on the face, neck, and trunk.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a single enlarged lymph node on the left side of her neck. She reports first noticing it during a cold she had about four weeks ago, and it has since increased in size, causing her to become more worried. During the examination, you observe a cervical lymph node with a diameter of 3 cm. There are no other abnormal findings. Routine blood tests reveal mild normochromic normocytic anemia and an elevated ESR of 72, but are otherwise normal.
What is the most appropriate next step to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CXR
Explanation:Suspected Hodgkin’s Lymphoma in Primary Care
This patient’s presentation of a solitary enlarged lymph node, mild anaemia, and raised ESR falls within the age range for possible Hodgkin’s lymphoma. While constitutional symptoms are only present in a minority of cases, it is important to consider this diagnosis and refer urgently for excision biopsy of the lymph node. CXR and CT are important for staging, but not for confirming the diagnosis in primary care. Rapidly enlarging neck masses of greater than three weeks duration should be referred urgently to a specialist without first arranging imaging. Upper GI pathology is less likely given the absence of symptoms, and routine referral to haematology is not appropriate. NICE guidelines recommend considering a suspected cancer pathway referral for Hodgkin’s lymphoma in adults presenting with unexplained lymphadenopathy, taking into account any associated symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 69-year-old man comes to see you. He is tearful and clearly upset. On review of his notes you see has a history of recurrent depression and he has been taking citalopram 20 mg once daily for the last 12 months. You can also see that he was referred for psychological therapies.
His grown up son has a severe learning disability and lives with him. He lacks social support and cites money problems and needs to work as a part time job as a cleaner. He is finding it difficult to function at work and he thinks that his employer wants to sack him, so he needs a 'sick note'. His son attends a day centre twice a week.
He tells you that he has had suicidal thoughts on and off for years and at the moment he feels like just ending it all. He says that he is not sure how he would do this but could take some tablets or something I suppose. He tells you that last year when he was feeling very low he drank a bottle of whiskey and took pain killers as he felt suicidal.
Which of the following suggests the greatest risk of suicidal intent?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duration of suicidal thoughts
Explanation:Assessing Suicide Risk in Patients: Importance of Therapeutic Alliance and Individualized Assessment
Assessing suicide risk in patients can be challenging, but establishing a therapeutic alliance and trusting relationship between the professional and patient is crucial. Patients need to feel comfortable enough to disclose suicidal thoughts, and having such discussions can be protective against suicide. A sensitive but thorough enquiry into the details can help identify and compassionately respond to identified risk. It is essential to ask all patients presenting with low mood/anxiety about suicidal thoughts.
Taking any suicidal ideas seriously and conducting a risk assessment is vital. Exploring protective factors, such as responsibilities for loved ones, can also help in assessing risk. While established risk factors and risk groups for suicide at a population level are useful, clinicians should not rely solely on this knowledge when assessing risk in specific individuals. Suicidal thoughts and risk can vary over a short time, and the assessment of suicide risk needs to be individually focused and conducted regularly.
A patient’s acute presentation can be a significant factor in considering an impulsive act that may not necessarily translate into significant suicide risk. The duration of suicidal thoughts is not as strong a risk factor as a previous suicide attempt. If suicidal thoughts are uncovered, the clinician needs to decide whether the patient needs to be referred to the Crisis team or is safe to review in 1 or 2 days (‘active monitoring’). The request for a sick note and agreement to plan future care shows that the patient is thinking about the future and wants help.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man is currently waiting for the results of his recent HIV test. The test has a specificity of 99.6%. What can be said about this test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 99.6% of patients without HIV are tested negative
Explanation:The sensitivity of 99.6 suggests that almost all patients with HIV are tested positive.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of significant urge incontinence (UI) for the past year. She denies any stress incontinence and has been ruled out for infection. What is the initial recommended treatment for urge incontinence?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bladder training for a minimum of six weeks
Explanation:Managing Urge Incontinence
Urge incontinence is a condition where urine leakage occurs involuntarily, often preceded by a sudden urge to urinate. According to NICE guidance on Urinary incontinence (CG171), women with urge incontinence or mixed incontinence should be offered bladder training as a first-line treatment for at least six weeks. This involves learning techniques to control the urge to urinate and gradually increasing the time between visits to the toilet. If bladder training is not effective, immediate release oxybutynin may be offered as an alternative treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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As a General Practitioner, which of the following items is NOT eligible for personal administration claims?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Salbutamol nebules
Explanation:Understanding Personally Administered Items in General Medical Services
Personally administered items are prescription items that are prescribed and administered by a member of the practice team. These items attract payment under General Medical Services Statement of Financial Entitlement 2005 section 17. Examples of personally administered items include vaccines, anaesthetics, injections, intrauterine contraceptive devices, contraceptive caps and diaphragms, diagnostic reagents, pessaries, and sutures.
It is important to note that Nexplanon cannot be claimed as a personally administered item since it is an implant, not an injection. An FP10 prescription should be provided instead. However, Goserelin, Leuprorelin, and Triptorelin can be claimed as personally administered items, even though they are implants.
High-volume vaccines such as influenza, typhoid, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, pneumococcal, and meningococcal are claimed on the form FP34PD. For other vaccines, an FP10 is needed. Dressings, hormonal implants, nebules, catheters, and clinical reagents cannot be claimed as personally administered items and require an FP10 prescription.
It is important to note that items that are personally administered do not attract a prescription charge. Both dispensing and non-dispensing doctors can claim a fee from the Prescription Pricing Authority. The fee per item decreases with an increasing number of items. If a practice is claiming more than 400 items per month, it is financially beneficial to split them into batches for each doctor rather than send one batch for the whole practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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