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  • Question 1 - Growth failure can be managed with recombinant human growth hormone (Somatropin) in the...

    Incorrect

    • Growth failure can be managed with recombinant human growth hormone (Somatropin) in the all of the following conditions except:

      Your Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome

      Correct Answer: Achondroplasia

      Explanation:

      Somatropin is a recombinant human growth hormone used to treat growth failure conditions associated with natural growth hormone deficiencies. According to the UK National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, these conditions include, Prader-Willi syndrome, Noonan syndrome, short stature Homeobox (SHOX) gene deficiency, Turner’s syndrome, chronic renal insufficiency and children who are small for gestational age. Treatment of short stature in achondroplasia has not seen any significant changes with somatotropin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near his right shoulder. An X-ray reveals a lateral projection in the metaphyseal region of his humerus. The lesion is removed and it is found to be composed of bony cortex, capped by cartilage. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Osteochondroma

      Explanation:

      Osteochondromas, or osteocartilaginous exostoses, are the most common benign bone tumours, and tend to appear near the ends of long bones. The overgrowth can occur in any bone where cartilage forms bone, and they are capped by cartilage. They are most common in people between the ages of 10-20 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is true regarding eczema herpeticum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding eczema herpeticum?

      Your Answer: It is not caused by coxsackie virus A16

      Correct Answer: Herpes virus 1 and 2, Ebstein-Barr virus, Cytomegalovirus, and Varicella Zoster virus are all species of Herpesviridae

      Explanation:

      Kaposi varicelliform eruption (KVE) is the name given to a distinct cutaneous eruption caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1, HSV-2, coxsackievirus A16, or vaccinia virus that infects a pre-existing dermatosis. Most commonly, it is caused by a disseminated HSV infection in patients with atopic dermatitis (AD) and, for this reason, is often referred to as eczema herpeticum (EH).Kaposi varicelliform eruption (KVE) is now known to occur in children of any age and in adults, however, most patients (56%) are aged 15-24 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed secondary sexual characteristics at 11 years of age. On examination, she has well-developed breasts and small bilateral groin swellings. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS), previously referred to as testicular feminization, is an X-linked disorder in which the patients are genotypically male (possessing and X and Y chromosome) and phenotypically female. This disorder is rare, with reported incidences from 1 in 20,000 to 1 in 60,000 live male births, and is the result of a missing gene on the X chromosome that is responsible for the cytoplasmic or nuclear testosterone receptor. In its absence, the gonad, which is a testis, produces normal amounts of testosterone; however, the end tissues are unable to respond due to the deficient receptors leading to the external genitalia developing in a female fashion. Anti-Mullerian hormone, which is produced by the testis, is normal in these patients, leading to regression of the Mullerian duct. Wolffian duct development, which depends on testosterone, does not occur as the ducts lack the receptors. The cumulative effect is a genotypic male with normal external female genitalia (without pubic or axillary hair), no menses, normal breast development, short or absent vagina, no internal sex organs, and the presence of testis. Frequently, these patients have bilateral inguinal hernias in childhood, and their presence should arouse suspicion of the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      39.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A child presents with signs of hypothyroidism. The doctors suggest a combined pituitary...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with signs of hypothyroidism. The doctors suggest a combined pituitary function test to evaluate his responses to an IV injection of thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH). Which of the following would suggest secondary hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer: Continued rise of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) at 60 minutes post-dose

      Correct Answer: Low baseline TSH level

      Explanation:

      A low serum free T4 level with a low, or normal serum TSH level would indicate secondary hypothyroidism. A normal TSH response to TRH is a rise at 20 minutes post-dose and then a fall by 60 minutes, while a normal prolactin response would be a rise at 20 minutes and then a fall by 60 minutes. A continued rise of TSH at 60 minutes implies hypothalamic damage. Secondary hypothyroidism is indicated by a low baseline TSH level, while primary hypothyroidism is demonstrated by a raised TSH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      47.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 6 year old presents with fever and multiple vesicles on his back....

    Correct

    • A 6 year old presents with fever and multiple vesicles on his back. What is the single most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: None

      Explanation:

      This clinical picture is typical of chickenpox, which is treated with antihistamines and calamine lotion. In the case of fever, acetaminophen can be used. Generally treatment is purely for symptomatic relief.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the foetal abnormalities given below leads to oligohydramnios? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the foetal abnormalities given below leads to oligohydramnios?

      Your Answer: A single umbilical artery

      Explanation:

      An important predictor of the foetal well-being is the evaluation of amniotic fluid volumes, commonly done using ultrasonography. Amniotic fluid index (AFI) is calculated by measuring the largest vertical diameter of the fluid pocket in all four quadrants of the uterine cavity and then added together. Oligohydramnios or decreased amniotic fluid volume can be defined as an AFI less than 5cm and occurs in about 4-5% of the pregnancies. It is associated with a number of foetal abnormalities and complications. Foetal abnormalities that lead to oligohydramnios include: premature rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth retardation, and congenital foetal abnormalities among others. A single umbilical artery is an anatomical defect of the umbilical cord, which leads to IUGR, uteroplacental insufficiency and may be associated with multiple congenital abnormalities as well, which all ultimately lead to the development of oligohydramnios. Foetal hydrops, developmental dysplasia of the hip and, macrosomia lead to polyhydramnios. Cleft palate is not associated with any of them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 13-year-old girl takes a deliberate, unknown number of paracetamol tablets in one...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl takes a deliberate, unknown number of paracetamol tablets in one go. She immediately regrets her actions and calls for help. She was brought to the hospital 2 hours after consuming the tablets. She has a history of HIV and is on antiretroviral therapy, though she cannot recall the name of the medication. Which of the following management options is most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Check paracetamol level in further 2 hours' time

      Explanation:

      According to the Rumack-Matthew Normogram, accurate levels of paracetamol can be measured only between 4-15 hours. The levels measured before 4 hours post-ingestion would highly underestimate the level of paracetamol ingested.The patient in question presents 2 hours after ingestion. Hence the most appropriate time to measure the levels of acetaminophen would be a further 2 hours later. Other options:- Note that the treatment with NAC can be delayed until the 4-hour level is obtained and compared to the nomogram.- Furthermore, haemodialysis is only indicated if she develops hepato-renal syndrome that is likely to occur 72-96 hours post-ingestion.- Indications for acute liver transplantation include persistent acidosis, hepatorenal syndrome and worsening coagulopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      48
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The blood supply to which of the following structures is NOT compromised due...

    Correct

    • The blood supply to which of the following structures is NOT compromised due to an occlusion in the anterior cerebral artery?

      Your Answer: Brocas area

      Explanation:

      Broca’s area is usually supplied by branches from the middle cerebral artery and thus will be spared when the anterior cerebral artery is occluded.Note:The two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries form an anastomosis known as the Circle of Willis on the inferior surface of the brain. Each half of the circle is formed by:1. Anterior communicating artery2. Anterior cerebral artery3. Internal carotid artery4. Posterior communicating artery5. Posterior cerebral arteries and the termination of the basilar arteryThe circle and its branches supply the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon and midbrain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 16-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Mumps presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever. On examination there is usually painful parotid swelling which has high chances of becoming bilateral. In OM with effusion there are no signs of infection and the only symptom is usually hearing loss. Acute otitis externa produces otalgia as well as ear discharge and itching. Acute OM produces otalgia and specific findings upon otoscopy. In acute mastoiditis the patient experiences ear discharge, otalgia, headache, hearing loss and other general signs of inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are worried that their child has growth and pubertal delay. His father also had a similar pattern of growth and is as short as a teenager. Currently, he is on the 2nd centile for height, with delayed adrenarche and gonadarche. in order to confirm the most likely diagnosis, which of the following investigations would be the most useful?

      Your Answer: Wrist X-ray for bone age

      Explanation:

      A bone age study helps doctors estimate the maturity of a child’s skeletal system. It’s usually done by taking a single X-ray of the left wrist, hand, and fingers. It is a safe and painless procedure that uses a small amount of radiation. The bones on the X-ray image are compared with X-rays images in a standard atlas of bone development, which is based on data from large numbers of other kids of the same gender and age. The bone age is measured in years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      60.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An 11-year-old boy presents with complaints of deep pain in his right leg...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old boy presents with complaints of deep pain in his right leg for the past four weeks. His mother describes him as 'being off-colour' of late. The physical examination of the child revealed no findings. Blood investigations reveal: Hb: 11.5 g/dL (13-18) WBC Count: 2.0 x 109/L (4-11) Differential Count: Neutrophils: 0.5 x 109/L (1.5-7.0) Lymphocytes: 1.4 x 109/L (1.5-4.0) Platelet count: 160 x 109/L (150-400) Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate: 50 mm in the 1st hourUrea and electrolytes were found to be within the normal range. An MRI showed diffuse uptake in both femurs, which are highly suggestive of tumour infiltration. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      The clinical features and the presentation of this child and the MRI findings are highly suggestive of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia.Anaemia and neutropenia, with a borderline platelet count as well as the tumour infiltration on both femurs on the MRI scan, are suggestive of a widespread Marrow disorder. Based on the age of the patient, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is more appropriate as it is more common than acute myeloid leukaemia in children and can present with bony pain in this age group.Other options:- Acute myeloid leukaemia: Although this is the most common leukaemia that is seen in adults, it rarely presents in children. – Ewing’s sarcoma: This would usually present in a more unilateral manner, and would only be associated with cytopenia if there was direct bone marrow involvement.- HIV infection: It would be very rare in this group. HIV infection can cause a wide array of signs and symptoms, but we are told that the MRI scan is highly suggestive of tumour infiltration, which would be uncommon in this condition. – Juvenile arthritis: It is much less common. There is also nothing to find on examination, such as swollen or painful joints, which would usually be seen in this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following conditions do NOT result in polyuria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions do NOT result in polyuria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Polyuria is defined as a total increase in the urine output or > 2L/m2 of daily urine produced in children. Polyuria can be a symptom of a vast number of medical conditions. The commonest and most important disease having polyuria as the main symptom is diabetes mellitus. Nephrogenic and central diabetes insipidus also results in polyuria along with polydipsia. Other conditions that lead to an increase in the urine output are renal failure, acute tubular necrosis, and exposure to high altitude. Hyperkalaemia does not result in polyuria; rather hypokalaemia can be an associated finding with polyuria in the case of diuretic abuse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zona fasciculata of the adrenal

      Explanation:

      Zona fasciculata of the adrenal produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body.Functions of cortisol:- Increases blood pressure: permits normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles.- Inhibits bone formation: decreases osteoblasts, type 1 collagen and absorption of calcium from the gut, and increases osteoclastic activity.- Increases insulin resistance.- Increases gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis.- Inhibits inflammatory and immune responses.- Maintains function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.An excess of corticosteroids in the body causes various symptoms that are a part of Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following signs suggests an absence seizure instead of a partial...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following signs suggests an absence seizure instead of a partial complex seizure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Induction by hyperventilation

      Explanation:

      Absence seizures are induced by over breathing or hyperventilation, while the other features suggest partial seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 8 year old male child presents with frequent and recurrent headaches and...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old male child presents with frequent and recurrent headaches and a history of dark-coloured urine. He has a blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg and normal serum urea and creatinine levels. Urine microscopy reveals erythrocytes and erythrocyte casts. His 24-hour urine protein is about 2 g. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute nephritic syndrome

      Explanation:

      The child most likely has nephritic syndrome which is characterised by a reduced renal function, proteinuria of non-nephrotic range, haematuria, erythrocyte casts, and oedema. Polyarteritis nodosa usually occurs in middle-aged men but can also be seen in young children. It is accompanied by severe systemic manifestations such as fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgia.Renal cell carcinoma usually presents around 55 years with the classic triad of haematuria, loin pain and a unilateral mass in the flank.Polycystic kidney disease usually presents in adult life with acute loin pain and palpation of masses in the flanks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following does not occur in a 15-year-old girl who presents...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not occur in a 15-year-old girl who presents following amitriptyline overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pin point pupils

      Explanation:

      Pupils are dilated in patients with amitriptyline overdose.Tricyclic antidepressants have a narrow therapeutic index, and thus, small doses can be fatal in children. Deaths from tricyclics are more common than other antidepressants. Bimodal incidence with toddlers (accidental) and teenagers (deliberate) most commonly affected.Symptoms: They occur within 6 hours of ingestion.- Nausea, vomiting, and headache- Elevated body temperature- Agitation, sleepiness, confusion, coma- Dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention (anticholinergic)- Dilated pupils- Seizures- Hypotension, tachycardia, conduction disorders, and cardiac arrest- Respiratory depressionManagement:Treatment focuses on supportive care. This includes airway protection, ventilation and oxygenation, intravenous fluids, and cardiac monitoring.Other measures include:- Activated charcoal within 2 hours- Hypotension is treated with IV fluids and adrenaline- Cardiac monitoring- Sodium bicarbonate in acidosis or if there are wide QRS complex (> 100 ms)- Convulsions may require diazepam or lorazepam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 6 year old girl presents with a history of palpitations and light...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old girl presents with a history of palpitations and light headedness. Her heart rate is 200 beats per minute so you try with vagal manoeuvres and repeated boluses of adenosine up to a maximum dose of 500mcg/kg. What would you do next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Synchronous DC shock 1J/kg

      Explanation:

      According to APLS, your next step should be one of the following: synchronous DC shock, amiodarone, or cardiology advice for alternative antiarrhythmics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Renal tubular acidosis affects the reabsorption of bicarbonate in the proximal tubule or...

    Incorrect

    • Renal tubular acidosis affects the reabsorption of bicarbonate in the proximal tubule or excretion of hydrogen ions from the distal tubule. Which of the following is a key difference in clinical presentation of these two types of renal tubular acidosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal stone formation

      Explanation:

      Distal renal tubular acidosis (dRTA) is characterised by a decreased hydrogen ion excretion from the alpha intercalated cells of the collecting duct of the distal nephron. The resultant acidosis causes calcium and phosphates to be released from bones to buffer the acidosis causing hypercalciuria. This precipitates calcium compounds in the kidney, predisposing it to renal stone formation. On the other hand, proximal renal tubular acidosis is characterised by an impairment in bicarbonate resorption. Both types lead to metabolic acidosis and electrolyte imbalances including potassium depletion. Children often present with failure to thrive. One way to differentiate between the two conditions is with an acid challenge test. In proximal RTA (type 2) administering an ammonium chloride load will decrease the urinary pH whereas in distal disease (type 1), the urine pH will not decrease below 5.3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following conditions is inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystinosis

      Explanation:

      Cystinosis is a condition characterized by accumulation of the amino acid cystine (a building block of proteins) within cells. This condition is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern.Excess cystine damages cells and often forms crystals that can build up and cause problems in many organs and tissues. The kidneys and eyes are especially vulnerable to damage; the muscles, thyroid, pancreas, and testes may also be affected.There are three distinct types of cystinosis. In order of decreasing severity, they are nephropathic cystinosis, intermediate cystinosis, and non-nephropathic or ocular cystinosis.Nephropathic cystinosis begins in infancy, causing poor growth and a particular type of kidney damage (renal Fanconi syndrome) in which certain molecules that should be reabsorbed into the bloodstream are instead eliminated in the urine. The kidney problems lead to the loss of important minerals, salts, fluids, and many other nutrients. The loss of nutrients impairs growth and may result in soft, bowed bones (hypophosphatemic rickets), especially in the legs. The nutrient imbalances in the body lead to increased urination, thirst, dehydration, and abnormally acidic blood (acidosis). By about the age of 2, cystine crystals may be present in the clear covering of the eye (cornea). The build-up of these crystals in the eye causes pain and an increased sensitivity to light (photophobia). Untreated children will experience complete kidney failure by about the age of 10. Other signs and symptoms that may occur in untreated people, especially after adolescence, include muscle deterioration, blindness, inability to swallow, diabetes, thyroid and nervous system problems, and an inability to father children (infertility) in affected men.The signs and symptoms of intermediate cystinosis are the same as nephropathic cystinosis, but they occur at a later age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An infant born at 34 weeks was kept in the incubator for almost...

    Incorrect

    • An infant born at 34 weeks was kept in the incubator for almost a month. Physical examination revealed a heart murmur, which however was not present at discharge. What is the most probable cause of this murmur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PDA

      Explanation:

      PDA is particularly common in premature babies and it is managed by indomethacin administration. However, if PDA is not the only defect, prostaglandin E1 can be administered in order to keep the ductus open until the surgery takes place.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - During the fetal stage, the mesonephric tubules gives rise to the? ...

    Incorrect

    • During the fetal stage, the mesonephric tubules gives rise to the?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wolffian duct

      Explanation:

      The development of the kidney proceeds through a series of successive phases, each marked by the development of a more advanced kidney: the pronephros, mesonephros, and metanephros. The development of the pronephric duct proceeds in a cranial-to-caudal direction. As it elongates caudally, the pronephric duct induces nearby intermediate mesoderm in the thoracolumbar area to become epithelial tubules called mesonephric tubules. Each mesonephric tubule receives a blood supply from a branch of the aorta, ending in a capillary tuft analogous to the glomerulus of the definitive nephron. The mesonephric tubule forms a capsule around the capillary tuft, allowing for filtration of blood. This filtrate flows through the mesonephric tubule and is drained into the continuation of the pronephric duct, now called the mesonephric duct or Wolffian duct. The nephrotomes of the pronephros degenerate while the mesonephric duct extends towards the most caudal end of the embryo, ultimately attaching to the cloaca.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
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  • Question 23 - Which of the given conditions is an X-linked recessive disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given conditions is an X-linked recessive disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hunter's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Hereditary diseases follow specific inheritance patterns according to the type of gene involved. Mutations in the genes which are on the sex chromosome, chromosome X are called X-linked diseases. X-linked recessive conditions result when both the copies of X-chromosomes are defective, which happens in the case of females since males have only one X- chromosome. Thus, these conditions are more common among males, and examples include colour blindness, haemophilia, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, and hunter’s syndrome, etc. Hunter’s syndrome is a type of lysosomal storage disease which is also known as mucopolysaccharidosis II. Vitamin D resistant rickets is a X-linked dominant disease. Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2 are autosomal dominant conditions while Wilson’s disease is autosomal recessive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 5 month old boy is admitted with recurrent, brief grand mal seizures....

    Incorrect

    • A 5 month old boy is admitted with recurrent, brief grand mal seizures. Cranial CT reveals various circular lesions and renal ultrasound shows discrete cysts. Family history reveals that his father has had a renal transplant and has profound acne-like spots on his nose and cheeks. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Tuberous sclerosis presents with the growth of numerous noncancerous (benign) tumours in many parts of the body. They may appear in the brain, kidneys, skin or various other organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following statements is true regarding Bell's palsy in childhood? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding Bell's palsy in childhood?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commonly preceded by a viral infection

      Explanation:

      While the cause for Bell’s palsy is still under debate, it is observed that Bell’s palsy is often preceded by a viral infection. Bell’s Palsy:Bell’s palsy (idiopathic facial palsy) is an acute unilateral lower motor neurone palsy. It typically occurs two weeks after viral infection such as Epstein-Barr, herpes simplex, herpes zoster or mumps. A careful assessment may suggest an alternative aetiology for the acute onset of weakness, e.g. acute otitis media, Lyme disease, hypertension. Causes:In childhood, Bell’s palsy is probably a post-infectious (i.e. immune-mediated) phenomenon, while in adults, there is increasing evidence that the majority of cases follow reactivation of previous HSV infection. Management:The prognosis is generally good in childhood with full recovery in the majority. However, permanent weakness is observed in around 5%. Steroids and acyclovir may have some benefit in adults with recent onset of weakness, but the evidence of the treatment benefit is much less convincing in childhood. Exposure keratitis is an important complication and children should be managed with eye drops and taping of the eyelid at night until recovery is complete.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 2-day old neonate is brought to the hospital with complaint of not...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day old neonate is brought to the hospital with complaint of not having opened his bowels. On examination, the anus is not visible, and meconium is coming out of the urethra. Which of the following statements regarding this patient is most accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: This is an anorectal malformation with a recto urethral fistula, urgent defunctioning colostomy needed

      Explanation:

      Anorectal malformations (ARMS) are also known as imperforate anus (IA). This is an umbrella term for a group of birth defects which affect the anorectal area.During a normal bowel movement, solid waste passes from the colon (large intestine) to the rectum (the final section the colon) and through the anus. When a child has an ARM, the rectum and the anus do not develop properly.Some types of ARM can cause constipation, faecal and / or urinary incontinence, infections and other problems. Some of these problems are very minor and easy to treat, with great long-term prognosis. Others are complex and affect multiple areas of life, such as sexual function and urinary and bowel control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
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      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 17-year-old boy presents with a concern that he had not attained puberty....

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy presents with a concern that he had not attained puberty. He lacks secondary sexual characteristics and has altered smell and reduced testicular size. Which of the following hormone profiles with regard to FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), LH (luteinizing hormone) and testosterone would fit a diagnosis of Kallman syndrome for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced testosterone, reduced FSH and reduced LH

      Explanation:

      While the clinical scenario and the anosmic presentation of the child are highly suggestive of Kallmann’s syndrome, reduced testosterone, FSH and LH levels can confirm the diagnosis.Kallman’s syndrome is a recognised cause of delayed puberty secondary to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. It is usually inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. Kallman’s syndrome is thought to be caused by a failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus.Clinical features of Kallmann’s syndrome include:- Delayed puberty- Hypogonadism, cryptorchidism- Anosmia- Low sex hormone levels – Inappropriately low/normal LH and FSH levels- Some patients can present with associated cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 28 - A 9 year old girl who has recently undergone a laparoscopic appendicectomy for...

    Incorrect

    • A 9 year old girl who has recently undergone a laparoscopic appendicectomy for a perforated appendix develops a swinging temperature of 38.8 C while on admission. What is next step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange for an ultrasound scan to look for intra-abdominal collection

      Explanation:

      Children who present with ruptured appendices are at increased risk of intra abdominal collections or abscesses. A swinging temperature is the first clue in indicating an intra abdominal abscess in a patient who had recently undergone surgery for a perforated appendix. The best course of action is therefore to get an ultrasound of the fluid collection before proceeding to rule out any other complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      0
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following statements is correct for distal renal tubular acidosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct for distal renal tubular acidosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Children can present with nephrocalcinosis

      Explanation:

      Distal renal tubular acidosis (dRTA) is characterised by a decreased hydrogen ion excretion from the alpha intercalated cells of the collecting duct of the distal nephron. The resultant acidosis causes Ca and phosphates to be released from bones to buffer the acidosis causing hypercalciuria, thus precipitating calcium compounds in the kidney. Other consequences of the dRTA in children include rickets, hypokalaemia, and polyuria. While dRTA can occur as a result of various pathologies including autoimmune disease, proximal renal tubular acidosis often presents as part of Fanconi’s syndrome. One way to differentiate between the two conditions is with an acid challenge test. In proximal RTA offering the child an acid load will decrease the urinary ph whereas in distal disease the pH will be unaffected due to impairment in hydrogen ion secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 30 - A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe dehydration. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause severe dehydration and metabolic acidosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Severe diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Diarrhoea is defined as having three or more loose or liquid stools per day, or as having more stools than is normal for that person. Severe diarrhoea, causing fluid loss and loss of bicarbonate, will result in marked dehydration and metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
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