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Question 1
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a suspected intentional overdose. She is unsure of the medication she has taken. Her medical history includes severe asthma, anxiety, and depression. Additionally, she is a regular cannabis smoker.
During the assessment, the patient appears agitated and confused, unable to remain still on the bed. There is significant global hypertonia and clonus, particularly in the legs. Her vital signs reveal a sinus tachycardia on ECG with a pulse of 135 bpm. Her blood pressure is 156/96 mmHg, SpO2 97% on air, respiratory rate of 32, and temperature of 40.6°C. The patient's pupils are dilated, and she is sweating.
Which medication is the patient likely to have overdosed on?Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Serotonergic Toxidrome
Serotonergic toxidrome, also known as serotonin syndrome, is a condition of drug toxicity that is characterized by extreme temperature, mental agitation and confusion, hypertonia, hyperreflexia, and clonus. This condition is caused by a flooding of the central nervous system with excess serotonin, which can be triggered by various drugs, including antidepressants, opioid analgesics, and certain herbal remedies. Recreational drugs such as cocaine, ecstasy, and amphetamines can also augment serotonin pharmacodynamics and increase the risk of serotonergic toxidrome.
Deliberate overdosage is a common cause of serotonergic toxidrome, but it can also occur inadvertently, especially in patients taking multiple drugs that affect the metabolism and usage of serotonin. Life-threatening serotonergic toxidrome is a medical emergency that requires admission to the intensive care unit for haemofiltration, intubation, paralysis, and artificial cooling to control the temperature and manage the rhabdomyolysis. Serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine may be given, and tachycardia and hypertension can be controlled with intravenous short-acting beta-blockade.
While other drugs may display some similar features, the serotonergic toxidrome is a relatively specific presentation, typically of rapid onset. Aminophylline, cannabis, diazepam, and paracetamol overdose are unlikely to cause this picture. It is important to screen blood for paracetamol levels in any patient in whom any overdose is suspected, as it is easily treated and can be lethal if missed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 58-year-old man presents to his Emergency Department complaining of blood in his urine. He reports that this has been happening over the past three days. He denies any pain or fever.
Physical examination revealed bilateral wheezes but is otherwise unremarkable. He does not have any problem passing urine. He has always lived in the UK and has not travelled anywhere outside the country recently. The patient is retired but used to work in a textile factory where he was responsible for working in the dye plants producing different coloured fabric. He has a past medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and hypertension. He takes losartan for his hypertension and a budesonide and formoterol combination inhaler for his COPD. The man is an ex-smoker with a 30 pack-year smoking history.
What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer: Bladder cancer
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Painless Haematuria: Bladder Cancer vs. Other Possibilities
When a patient presents with painless haematuria, bladder cancer should be highly suspected until proven otherwise. While other conditions, such as urinary tract infections, can cause haematuria, a strong history of smoking and exposure to chemical dyes increase the likelihood of bladder cancer.
Prostate cancer is unlikely to present with haematuria and is more likely to be associated with lower urinary tract symptoms. Benign prostatic hyperplasia would present with signs of lower urinary tract obstruction, which this patient does not have. Nephrolithiasis can cause haematuria, but the absence of pain makes it less likely. Renal cancer may also present with haematuria, but it is more likely to be associated with loin or abdominal pain, weight loss, anaemia, and fatigue.
In summary, when a patient presents with painless haematuria and a history of smoking and exposure to chemical dyes, bladder cancer should be the primary concern. Other possibilities should be considered, but they are less likely based on the absence of additional symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 3
Correct
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Samantha, a 35-year-old woman, arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe, sharp pain on her left side that radiates to her lower abdomen and groin. The pain comes and goes in waves and has been ongoing for 10 hours. She also reports an increased frequency of urination and a burning sensation while urinating. A urine dip reveals haematuria but no signs of infection. You request the following blood tests:
Calcium 3.3 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Corrected Calcium 3.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Phosphate 0.6 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.9 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 9.5 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
Parathyroid hormone 85 pg/mL (10-65 )
Which medication's long-term use is responsible for Samantha's condition?Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Hyperparathyroidism and subsequent hypercalcaemia can occur with prolonged use of lithium. This can lead to the formation of kidney stones due to excessive calcium concentration. Amitriptyline, a sedative tricyclic antidepressant, is not likely to cause nephrolithiasis or explain the patient’s elevated calcium and parathyroid hormone levels. Similarly, clozapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, is not known to cause hypercalcaemia or hyperparathyroidism. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, typically causes side effects during initiation or discontinuation, such as sexual dysfunction and gastrointestinal issues. Checking thyroid function tests may also be helpful as lithium use can lead to hypothyroidism.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.
Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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A 4-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a fever, poor feeding, and cough. The infant has received all routine vaccinations. Upon examination, the baby is alert and responsive, but there is increased work of breathing. Coarse crackles and a wheeze can be heard throughout the chest. The infant's heart sounds and ECG are normal, and a lumbar puncture is performed and reported as unremarkable. However, one hour later, the patient experiences a cardiac arrest. What is the most probable underlying cause of this arrest?
Your Answer: Bronchiolitis
Explanation:The most frequent reason for children’s cardiac arrest is respiratory issues, with bronchiolitis being the most common cause. Bronchiolitis is characterized by symptoms such as cough, fever, and poor feeding, as well as physical examination findings like wheezing, crackles, and increased respiratory effort. Congenital cardiac disease is an incorrect option since the patient has normal cardiac findings and ECG. Croup is also an incorrect option as it causes a distinct barking noise and is more prevalent in children aged 6 months to 2 years. Meningitis is another incorrect option as it typically results in an unwell infant with a fever and rapid breathing, but the analysis of cerebrospinal fluid would show abnormalities, which is not the case for this patient.
Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines
Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.
The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.
For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.
In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Correct
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What is the combination of ingredients in Hartmann's solution?
Your Answer: Sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium and lactate
Explanation:Hartmann’s Solution Composition and Metabolism
Hartmann’s solution, also known as lactated Ringer’s solution, is an intravenous fluid that is isotonic in nature. It contains various compounds, including sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium, and lactate. A litre of this solution contains 131 mmol of sodium, 111 mmol of chloride, 5 mmol of potassium, 2 mmol of calcium, and 29 mmol of lactate.
One of the unique features of Hartmann’s solution is the presence of lactate, which is metabolized by the liver to release bicarbonate. This process is important because bicarbonate would otherwise combine with calcium to form calcium carbonate, which can cause complications. Therefore, the metabolism of lactate helps to maintain the stability of the solution and prevent any adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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Question 6
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman comes to your GP office on Monday morning, concerned that she removed her week 2 contraceptive patch on Friday evening and was unable to get a replacement over the weekend. She has not engaged in sexual activity in the past two weeks.
What is the best course of action to take?Your Answer: No emergency contraception required, but apply new patch and advise barrier contraception for the next 7 days
Explanation:If there has been a delay in changing the patch for over 48 hours but no sexual activity has occurred within the past 10 days, emergency contraception is not necessary. However, the individual must use barrier contraception for the next 7 days and replace the patch immediately. If there is no sexual activity planned for the next 7 days, no further action is required, but it is important to advise the individual to use barrier contraception during this time. It is crucial to replace the patch as soon as possible to ensure effective contraceptive coverage.
The Evra patch is the only contraceptive patch that is approved for use in the UK. The patch cycle lasts for four weeks, during which the patch is worn every day for the first three weeks and changed weekly. During the fourth week, the patch is not worn, and a withdrawal bleed occurs.
If a woman delays changing the patch at the end of week one or two, she should change it immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are necessary. However, if the delay is more than 48 hours, she should change the patch immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next seven days. If she has had unprotected sex during this extended patch-free interval or in the last five days, emergency contraception should be considered.
If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week three, the woman should remove the patch as soon as possible and apply a new patch on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed.
If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for seven days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle. For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on combined hormonal methods of contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man has suffered a stab wound to his right forearm, resulting in an inability to extend his fingers. Fortunately, there is no sensory or vascular damage. Which nerve do you suspect has been affected?
Your Answer: Median nerve
Correct Answer: Posterior interosseous nerve
Explanation:Forearm Nerve Innervation
The forearm is innervated by several nerves, each with its own specific functions. The posterior interosseous nerve supplies all the extensor muscles except for the brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis brevis and longus. It does not have any cutaneous branch. On the other hand, the anterior interosseous nerve innervates the pronator quadratus, the flexor pollicis longus, and the flexor digitorum profundus to the index finger. Meanwhile, the median nerve innervates the flexor and pronator muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm, except for the flexor carpi ulnaris and part of the flexor digitorum profundus. It also innervates the thenar muscles and lateral two lumbricals in the hand. The musculocutaneous nerve, on the other hand, innervates the three muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm: the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis. Lastly, the ulnar nerve innervates the flexor muscles of the forearm, including the flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum profundus, unlike the median nerve. It also innervates the intrinsic muscles of the hand. the specific functions of each nerve is crucial in diagnosing and treating any nerve-related conditions in the forearm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 8
Correct
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A man who is 53 years old has been referred to the outpatient clinic as his renal function is declining. After diagnosis, it is found that he has AD polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). His mother passed away at the age of 50 due to a stroke, and his father is still alive. He is worried about the possibility of passing on the disorder to his son. What is the likelihood of his son inheriting ADPKD?
Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD) is a genetic condition that usually manifests between the ages of 30-50. Patients with ADPKD experience a decline in renal function and hypertension. In addition to renal cysts, they may also develop hepatic and berry aneurysms, which may be relevant if there is a maternal history of the disease. ADPKD is an autosomal dominant condition, meaning that there is a 50% chance of passing it on to offspring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic 8 weeks after her last menstrual period with complaints of severe nausea, vomiting, and vaginal spotting. Upon examination, she is found to be pregnant and a transvaginal ultrasound reveals an abnormally enlarged uterus. What would be the expected test results for this patient?
Your Answer: High beta hCG, high TSH, low thyroxine
Correct Answer: High beta hCG, low TSH, high thyroxine
Explanation:The symptoms described in this question are indicative of a molar pregnancy. To answer this question correctly, a basic understanding of physiology is necessary. Molar pregnancies are characterized by abnormally high levels of beta hCG for the stage of pregnancy, which serves as a tumor marker for gestational trophoblastic disease. Beta hCG has a similar biochemical structure to luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). Consequently, elevated levels of beta hCG can stimulate the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), leading to symptoms of thyrotoxicosis. High levels of T4 and T3 negatively impact the pituitary gland, reducing TSH levels overall.
Sources:
Best Practice- Molar Pregnancy
Medscape- Hydatidiform Mole WorkupGestational trophoblastic disorders refer to a range of conditions that originate from the placental trophoblast. These disorders include complete hydatidiform mole, partial hydatidiform mole, and choriocarcinoma. Complete hydatidiform mole is a benign tumor of trophoblastic material that occurs when an empty egg is fertilized by a single sperm that duplicates its own DNA, resulting in all 46 chromosomes being of paternal origin. Symptoms of this disorder include bleeding in the first or early second trimester, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, a uterus that is large for dates, and very high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the serum. Hypertension and hyperthyroidism may also be present. Urgent referral to a specialist center is necessary, and evacuation of the uterus is performed. Effective contraception is recommended to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months, as around 2-3% of cases may develop choriocarcinoma.
Partial hydatidiform mole, on the other hand, occurs when a normal haploid egg is fertilized by two sperms or by one sperm with duplication of the paternal chromosomes. As a result, the DNA is both maternal and paternal in origin, and the fetus may have triploid chromosomes, such as 69 XXX or 69 XXY. Fetal parts may also be visible. It is important to note that hCG can mimic thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), which may lead to hyperthyroidism.
In summary, gestational trophoblastic disorders are a group of conditions that arise from the placental trophoblast. Complete hydatidiform mole and partial hydatidiform mole are two types of these disorders. While complete hydatidiform mole is a benign tumor of trophoblastic material that occurs when an empty egg is fertilized by a single sperm that duplicates its own DNA, partial hydatidiform mole occurs when a normal haploid egg is fertilized by two sperms or by one sperm with duplication of the paternal chromosomes. It is important to seek urgent medical attention and effective contraception to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A young patient is brought to the Emergency Department following a car accident and presents with the following symptoms:
respiratory rate 15 bpm
pulse 70 bpm
blood pressure 120/80
Glasgow Coma Score 3/15
nasal bleeding mixed with clear fluid
orbital haematoma (‘raccoon eyes’)
no other facial bruising.
What is the probable cause of the patient's injuries?Your Answer: Posterior fossa skull fracture
Correct Answer: Anterior fossa skull fracture
Explanation:Differentiating Skull Fractures Based on Clinical Signs and Symptoms
When assessing a patient with significant head trauma, it is important to identify the type of skull fracture present. An anterior fossa skull fracture is indicated by orbital hematoma and nasal bleeding mixed with clear fluid, which is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) rhinorrhea. On the other hand, a posterior fossa skull fracture does not cause CSF rhinorrhea or orbital hematoma. A middle fossa skull fracture may produce ear bleeding or CSF otorrhea, and Battle’s sign, or postauricular ecchymosis, is a localizing feature. A paranasal sinus fracture may cause nasal bleeding but is unlikely to cause a CSF leak. Finally, a depressed skull vault fracture may occur alongside an anterior fossa skull fracture but will not cause CSF rhinorrhea or orbital hematoma on its own. Therefore, identifying the clinical signs and symptoms can help differentiate between different types of skull fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old patient presents with a history of well demarcated, erythematous lesions with silvery-white scaling plaques on the extensor surfaces of the elbows. There is evidence of nail pitting.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Phototherapy
Correct Answer: Topical betnovate + vitamin D
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for psoriasis is the application of betnovate (or another potent steroid) plus vitamin D for four weeks. If there is no or minimal improvement, referral to a specialist may be considered. Dermovate, a very potent steroid, should only be initiated by a specialist who may alter the treatment or advance it to include phototherapy or biologics. Hydrocortisone is not recommended for psoriasis treatment as it is not potent enough. Phototherapy is not the first-line treatment and should only be initiated by a dermatologist after considering all risks and benefits. Biologics are the last stage of treatment and are only initiated by a dermatologist if the detrimental effects of psoriasis are heavily impacting the patient’s life, despite other treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Correct
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What type of complement deficiency is linked to the onset of systemic lupus erythematosus?
Your Answer: C4
Explanation:During active systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), complement levels are typically reduced and can be utilized to track disease flares. Studies have demonstrated that decreased levels of C4a and C4b are linked to a higher likelihood of developing SLE.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).
Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient presents with the following full blood count (FBC) result: Hb 105 g/L (130-180), RBC 4.5 ×1012/L, Hct 0.353 (0.4-0.52), MCV 75 fL (80-96), MCH 32.5 pg (28-32), Platelets 325 ×109/L (150-400), WBC 7.91 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 6.15 ×109/L (1.5-7.0), Lymphocytes 1.54 ×109/L (1.5-4.0), Monocytes 0.33 ×109/L (0-0.8), Eosinophils 0.16 ×109/L (0.04-0.4), Basophils 0.08 ×109/L (0-0.1), Others 0.14 ×109/L. What would be the most appropriate initial investigation for this FBC result?
Your Answer: Folate concentration
Correct Answer: Ferritin concentration
Explanation:Interpretation of FBC Results
When analyzing a full blood count (FBC), a microcytosis with low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and anaemia (low Hb) is indicative of iron deficiency anaemia. To confirm this, a ferritin test should be requested, followed by an investigation into the source of blood loss if iron deficiency is confirmed. If faecal occult blood is positive, an endoscopy may be necessary. On the other hand, macrocytic anaemia with elevated MCV is caused by folate and B12 deficiency, while hypothyroidism is associated with elevated MCV. While a bone marrow biopsy can also show iron deficiency, it is an invasive procedure and is not necessary in a primary care setting. Therefore, interpreting FBC results requires a thorough of the different types of anaemia and their associated causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 25-year-old ice hockey player was tackled by a member of the opposite team and fell on the ice, hitting the right side of his head. He was disoriented but was able to continue the game. The following evening, his roommate tried to wake him but found him unconscious in a pool of vomit.
What is the most probable finding in a CT scan of his head?Your Answer: Unilateral biconvex-shaped shadow along the lateral cortex
Explanation:Understanding CT Scans: Interpreting Brain Hematomas
Brain hematomas are a serious medical condition that require prompt diagnosis and treatment. CT scans are often used to identify the location and type of hematoma present in the brain. Here are some key points to keep in mind when interpreting CT scans of brain hematomas:
Unilateral Biconvex-Shaped Shadow Along the Lateral Cortex
This is a classic case of an extradural hematoma, which occurs when temporal skull fractures damage the middle meningeal artery. Blood accumulates under arterial pressure, causing separation of the dura from the inner surface of the skull. A lucid period of several hours without symptoms may occur, but rapid blood accumulation will increase intracranial pressure, leading to uncal or transtentorial herniation and death.Bilateral Crescent-Shaped Shadow Along the Lateral Cortex
This is an incorrect interpretation because bilateral accumulation of blood is unlikely when the patient has only injured one side of their head.Unilateral Crescent-Shaped Shadow Along the Lateral Cortex
This describes a subdural hematoma, which occurs when blood accumulates between the inner surface of the dura and the outer arachnoid layer of the leptomeninges. This type of hematoma appears as a crescent-shaped shadow on a CT scan.Unilateral Biconvex-Shaped Area Along the Anterior Cortex
This is also an incorrect interpretation because accumulation of blood occurs beside the torn artery, which is typically located along the lateral cortex.Shifting of the Brain Midline Towards the Side of the Lesion
This is an incorrect interpretation because pressure due to an accumulation of blood will tend to shift the midline of the brain to the opposite side of the lesion.In summary, understanding the different types of brain hematomas and their corresponding CT scan appearances is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosurgery
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Question 15
Correct
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Which of the following presentations has the highest morbidity and mortality rate?
Your Answer: Footling presentation at delivery
Explanation:During the term of pregnancy, there is ample space for the fetus to reposition itself and move towards the head-down position. However, in cases of occipitoposterior presentation, the posterior fontanelle is located in the back quadrant of the pelvis, which requires more rotation and often results in a longer labor. Additionally, there is a higher likelihood of medical intervention, with a rate of 22.
Breech presentation occurs when the caudal end of the fetus is in the lower segment, and it is more common at 28 weeks than near term. Risk factors include uterine malformations, placenta praevia, and fetal abnormalities. Management options include spontaneous turning, external cephalic version (ECV), planned caesarean section, or vaginal delivery. The RCOG recommends informing women that planned caesarean section reduces perinatal mortality and early neonatal morbidity, but there is no evidence that the long-term health of babies is influenced by how they are born. ECV is contraindicated in certain cases, such as where caesarean delivery is required or there is an abnormal cardiotocography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman comes to the Eye Casualty complaining of a painful decrease in vision in her left eye that has been occurring over the past six hours. She reports no other symptoms.
During the examination, her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/6, while her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/36. The left eye has reduced color vision. Eye movements do not show any double vision, but the pain intensifies. The swinging torch test is performed, and it is discovered that the left pupil dilates when the torch light is moved from the right eye to the left. Dilated fundoscopy reveals a swollen optic disc and exudates that align like a star at the macula in the left eye.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Neuroretinitis
Explanation:Differentiating Subtypes of Optic Neuritis
Optic neuritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the optic nerve, which can cause vision loss and other symptoms. However, there are several subtypes of optic neuritis that can present differently.
Neuroretinitis is a subtype of optic neuritis that involves both the retina and optic disc. A macular star pattern of lipid exudates may be present in the macula.
Papillitis is another subtype of optic neuritis that is characterized by swelling of the optic disc.
Papilloedema, on the other hand, is optic disc swelling that is typically caused by increased intracranial pressure.
Post-viral demyelination is a subtype of optic neuritis that can occur after a viral illness.
Retrobulbar neuritis is a subtype of optic neuritis where the optic disc is not affected.
It is important to differentiate between these subtypes of optic neuritis in order to determine the appropriate treatment and management plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman without medical history presents to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain and vomiting that has been ongoing for 12 hours. Upon examination, she is found to be tender in the epigastrium and has a low-grade fever. An abdominal ultrasound reveals the presence of gallstones, but no signs of cholecystitis. Blood tests are ordered and show the following results:
- Hb: 121 g/L (normal range: 115 - 160)
- Platelets: 450 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400)
- WBC: 15.5 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0)
- Calcium: 1.9 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6)
- Amylase: 1056 U/L (normal range: 70 - 300)
- Bilirubin: 5 µmol/L (normal range: 3 - 17)
- ALP: 92 u/L (normal range: 30 - 100)
- ALT: 33 u/L (normal range: 3 - 40)
- γGT: 41 u/L (normal range: 8 - 60)
- Albumin: 32 g/L (normal range: 35 - 50)
As she awaits transfer to the ward, the patient's condition worsens. She becomes increasingly short of breath and tachypnoeic, and eventually develops central cyanosis. What is the most likely cause of her deterioration?Your Answer: Pneumothorax
Correct Answer: Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Explanation:The patient’s initial presentation is most likely due to acute pancreatitis, as evidenced by the elevated serum amylase levels. Her age (>55), low serum calcium levels (<2 mmol/L), and high white cell count (>15 x 109/L) indicate a Modified Glasgow Score of >3, putting her at risk of severe pancreatitis and its complications. Although the other options could also cause shortness of breath and cyanosis, the most probable explanation in this case is acute respiratory distress syndrome, a known complication of acute pancreatitis.
Acute pancreatitis can lead to various complications, both locally and systemically. Local complications include peripancreatic fluid collections, which occur in about 25% of cases and may develop into pseudocysts or abscesses. Pseudocysts are walled by fibrous or granulation tissue and typically occur 4 weeks or more after an attack of acute pancreatitis. Pancreatic necrosis, which involves both the pancreatic parenchyma and surrounding fat, can also occur and is directly linked to the extent of necrosis. Pancreatic abscesses may result from infected pseudocysts and can be treated with drainage methods. Haemorrhage may also occur, particularly in cases of infected necrosis.
Systemic complications of acute pancreatitis include acute respiratory distress syndrome, which has a high mortality rate of around 20%. Local complications such as peripancreatic fluid collections and pancreatic necrosis can also lead to systemic complications if left untreated. It is important to manage these complications appropriately, with conservative management being preferred for sterile necrosis and early necrosectomy being avoided unless necessary. Treatment options for local complications include endoscopic or surgical cystogastrostomy, aspiration, and drainage methods. Overall, prompt recognition and management of complications is crucial in improving outcomes for patients with acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 18
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman who is on the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) seeks guidance. She is presently on day 10 of her cycle and has missed her last two pills. Before this, she took her pill accurately every day. She had unprotected sexual intercourse 10 hours ago and is unsure if she should take emergency contraception to avoid pregnancy.
What advice should she be given?Your Answer: No emergency contraception is required and to continue taking her pill as normal
Explanation:If the patient has missed two pills between days 8-14 of her cycle but has taken the previous 7 days of COCP correctly, emergency contraception is not necessary according to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health. Since the patient is not in need of emergency contraception, offering her a hormonal-based emergency contraceptive would be inappropriate. However, if emergency contraception is required, options include EllaOne (ulipristal acetate) up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse or Levonelle (levonorgestrel) up to 96 hours after unprotected intercourse. Inserting a copper IUD to prevent pregnancy would also be inappropriate in this case. If the patient is having difficulty remembering to take her pill correctly and is interested in long-acting contraception, counseling her on options such as intrauterine devices, subnormal contraceptive implants, and the contraceptive injection would be appropriate. It should be noted that contraceptive injections are not used as a form of emergency contraception and advising a patient to take emergency contraception within 12 hours would be incorrect.
Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.
However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.
If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman presents with weak, painful hands. The pain is worse when she types and at night. On examination, there is significant wasting of the thenar eminence muscles.
This sign is most likely to be caused by:Your Answer: Compression of the median nerve
Explanation:Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Causes and Symptoms
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition caused by the compression of the contents of the carpal tunnel, which is the space between the flexor retinaculum and the carpal bones. This compression leads to the compression of the median nerve, which supplies the muscles of the thenar eminence. As a result, any compression or space-occupying lesion in the carpal tunnel causes wasting of the thenar eminence.
It is important to note that the recurrent thenar nerve, which actually supplies the thenar eminence, does not pass through the carpal tunnel. Instead, it branches off the median nerve beyond the carpal tunnel. Therefore, compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel will cause the symptoms associated with carpal tunnel syndrome.
While the exact cause of carpal tunnel syndrome is often unknown, it has been associated with pregnancy, acromegaly, diabetes, and other diseases. Trauma to the forearm may also lead to this condition.
It is important to recognize the symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, which include weakness and wasting of the thenar eminence. Seeking medical attention and treatment can help alleviate these symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 20
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations, dizziness, and lightheadedness. Upon conducting an ECG, torsades de pointes is observed. Which medication is the most probable cause of the cardiac anomaly?
Your Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Citalopram, an SSRI used to treat major depressive disorder, has been identified as the most likely to cause QT prolongation and torsades de pointes. In 2011, the MHRA issued a warning against its use in patients with long-QT syndrome. While fluoxetine and sertraline can also cause prolonged QT, citalopram is more frequently associated with this side effect. Gentamicin, a bactericidal antibiotic, does not appear to cause QT prolongation or torsades de pointes. Although sertraline is another SSRI that can cause prolonged QT, citalopram remains the most concerning in this regard.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 21
Correct
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A 50-year-old man reports experiencing fatigue that worsens towards the end of the day. He has also been struggling with swallowing and finds repetitive movements challenging. What is the probable cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Antibodies against acetylcholine receptors
Explanation:Autoimmune Conditions and their Mechanisms
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune condition characterized by autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors of the post-synaptic neuronal membranes of skeletal muscle. This inhibits the binding of acetylcholine, blocking neuronal transmission and resulting in muscle weakness. Diagnosis is made through serum testing for antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor, and treatment involves acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunomodulating drugs.
In Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome, autoantibodies to presynaptic calcium channel blockers are found, often in association with small cell lung cancer. Demyelinating diseases such as multiple sclerosis are caused by the destruction of the myelin sheath surrounding neuronal axons.
Understanding Autoimmune Conditions and their Mechanisms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents with abnormal liver function tests. He reports being a teetotaler and having no risk factors for liver disease. However, his grandfather passed away from liver cancer. Upon investigation, his serum albumin is 38 g/L (37-49), serum total bilirubin is 41 μmol/L (1-22), serum alanine aminotransferase is 105 U/L (5-35), serum alkaline phosphatase is 115 U/L (45-105), serum ferritin is 1360 μg/L (15-300), and serum iron saturation is 84%. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Haemochromatosis
Explanation:Differentiating Hereditary Haemochromatosis from Other Liver Diseases
Raised serum ferritin levels and increased transferrin saturation, with or without abnormal liver function tests, are indicative of hereditary haemochromatosis. On the other hand, abnormal serum ferritin and iron saturation are not observed in alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. Diagnosis of the latter involves measuring serum alpha-1 antitrypsin levels and pi-typing for mutant alleles.
In primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC), liver function abnormalities follow a cholestatic pattern, and it typically affects middle-aged females. However, serum ferritin and iron studies are normal in PBC. Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is characterized by a disproportionate elevation (4-10 times normal) in serum alkaline phosphatase, and patients with PSC usually have a history of inflammatory bowel disease.
Finally, Wilson’s disease is a condition that primarily affects young people, usually in their second or third decade of life. It is rare for Wilson’s disease to manifest after the age of 40. By the unique characteristics of each liver disease, healthcare professionals can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old retired head teacher undergoes a right hemicolectomy for a colonic carcinoma. The neuromuscular blocking agent used during intubation and surgery acts by competitive inhibition at the receptor site. Which of the following drugs is a neuromuscular blocking agent that works through competitive inhibition?
Your Answer: Succinylcholine
Correct Answer: Pancuronium
Explanation:Understanding Neuromuscular Blockers: Types and Actions
Neuromuscular blockers are drugs that are commonly used during surgical procedures to induce muscle relaxation. There are two types of neuromuscular blockers: non-depolarising and depolarising blockers.
Non-depolarising blockers, such as pancuronium, atracurium, vecuronium, and tubocurarine, act as competitive inhibitors by competing with acetylcholine for the receptor site. Their action is reversible and can be terminated by the use of an anticholinesterase, such as neostigmine or edrophonium.
Neostigmine prolongs the action of acetylcholine by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, without competition. It is sometimes used to treat acute attacks of myasthenia gravis.
Depolarising blockers, such as succinylcholine and suxamethonium, are irreversible. Their initial action is to cause stimulation, which may result in muscle fasciculation. Suxamethonium has a rapid onset and is short-acting, but its effects can be devastating in patients with a deficiency of the enzyme pseudocholinesterase.
Edrophonium prolongs the action of acetylcholine by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, without competition. It was historically used to diagnose myasthenia during the Tensilon® test, but this test has a high risk for cardiac events.
Understanding the types and actions of neuromuscular blockers is important for healthcare professionals to ensure safe and effective use during surgical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman is admitted to the Gastroenterology Ward with abdominal distension due to ascites. On examination, there is symmetrical distension of the abdomen and a palpable pelvic mass in the left iliac fossa. On closer questioning, she also admits to being ‘off her food’ and has lost a stone in weight over the last 3 weeks.
Which one of the following types of ovarian mass is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Mucinous cystadenoma
Correct Answer: Serous adenocarcinoma
Explanation:Ovarian tumours are mostly epithelial in nature, comprising 90% of all cases. Serous tumours are the most common type, accounting for 50% of ovarian cancers and 20% of benign tumours. Although the 5-year survival rate is improving, it remains low at around 40% in the UK. These tumours typically affect postmenopausal women, with over 80% of cases occurring in those over 50 years old. Ovarian tumours can be benign, invasive or malignant, with different pathological subtypes. Mucinous cystadenomas are common in women aged 20-50 years and can be large and multilocular, with a risk of pseudomyxoma peritonei if they rupture. Brenner tumours are rare and often found incidentally, while teratomas are non-seminomatous germ cell tumours that may contain multiple types of tissue. Clear cell carcinomas are rare and have a worse prognosis than serous tumours, growing rapidly and being associated with endometriosis. Surgical removal is the preferred treatment for most ovarian tumours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl was stabbed with a knife during a robbery attempt and taken to the Emergency Department of a local hospital. Physical examination revealed a single horizontal stab wound located on the skin 4 mm to the right of the umbilicus.
In which dermatome was the stab wound located?Your Answer: T10
Explanation:Dermatomes and Pain Referral in the Abdomen
The human body is divided into dermatomes, which are areas of skin that are mainly supplied by a single spinal nerve. In the abdomen, the T8-T12 dermatomes are important to understand as they can help identify the source of pain referral.
T8 dermatome is located at the epigastrium, which is approximately at the level of the subcostal margin. T9 dermatome lies just superior to the umbilicus, while T10 dermatome lies at the level of the umbilicus. Pain originating from the small bowel may be referred to the T10 dermatome.
T11 dermatome lies just inferior to the umbilicus, and pain originating from the large bowel may be referred to the T11-T12 area. T12 dermatome lies at the suprapubic level, and pain originating from the large bowel may also be referred to the T11-T12 area.
It is important to note that confusion between the dermatomes and the spinal vertebrae level at which structures lie should be avoided. Understanding the dermatomes and pain referral patterns in the abdomen can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to her University Health Service complaining of a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge that she has noticed over the past few days. The discharge is yellow in colour and is accompanied by vulval itching. She has had protected sexual intercourse three times in the past six months and is not currently in a committed relationship. Upon investigation, her vaginal pH is found to be 6.0 and ovoid mobile parasites are observed on a wet saline mount. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chlamydia
Correct Answer: Trichomoniasis
Explanation:Distinguishing between common vaginal infections: Trichomoniasis, Bacterial Vaginosis, gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia, and Mycoplasma Genitalium
When a woman presents with an elevated vaginal pH, a fish-smelling, yellow vaginal discharge, and ovoid trichomonads, the diagnosis of trichomoniasis (Trichomonas vaginalis) is strongly supported. A wet saline mount or anaerobic culture can confirm the diagnosis, with culture being particularly useful in men. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for seven days or a single 2g dose, and sexual partners should also be treated to prevent re-infection.
Bacterial vaginosis is a differential diagnosis to consider, as it also presents with a fish-smelling discharge and a pH > 4.5. However, the presence of ovoid mobile parasites on wet saline mount suggests trichomoniasis as the more likely diagnosis. Bacterial vaginosis would show clue cells on wet saline mount.
gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia are sexually transmitted infections that are more likely to be seen in patients with a history of unprotected sex. However, fish-smelling discharge is not characteristic of either infection. A specimen culture of gonorrhoeae would show Gram-negative diplococci, while chlamydia would not show ovoid mobile parasites on wet saline mount.
Mycoplasma genitalium is another potential sexually transmitted infection that can cause urethritis, discharge, cervicitis, or endometritis in women. However, the wet saline mount results suggest that this is not the diagnosis, and fish-smelling discharge is not characteristic of this infection.
In summary, a combination of clinical presentation, wet saline mount, and culture can help distinguish between common vaginal infections such as trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis, gonorrhoeae, chlamydia, and mycoplasma genitalium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 16-year-old Ethiopian girl has come to the emergency department complaining of recurring urinary tract infections. During the examination, you and a chaperone observe that the girl may have undergone clitoridectomy, indicating that she may have been a victim of female genital mutilation (FGM). The girl requests antibiotics and that no one else be informed. In addition to treating the infection, what actions should you take?
Your Answer: Inform the medical team and the police
Explanation:The UK Government implemented legal modifications in October 2015 regarding the response of doctors in England and Wales to instances of female genital mutilation (FGM). As per the guidelines of the General Medical Council (GMC), doctors are required to report all cases of FGM in individuals under the age of 18 to the police. This can be done by contacting 101 or using the established local channels. Reporting is compulsory to align with our responsibilities towards child protection and safeguarding.
Understanding Female Genital Mutilation
Female genital mutilation (FGM) is a term used to describe any procedure that involves the partial or complete removal of the external female genitalia or any other injury to the female genital organs for non-medical reasons. The World Health Organization (WHO) has classified FGM into four types. Type 1 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and/or the prepuce, while type 2 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and the labia minora, with or without excision of the labia majora. Type 3 involves the narrowing of the vaginal orifice with the creation of a covering seal by cutting and appositioning the labia minora and/or the labia majora, with or without excision of the clitoris. Finally, type 4 includes all other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, such as pricking, piercing, incising, scraping, and cauterization. It is important to understand the different types of FGM to raise awareness and prevent this harmful practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman complains of dyspareunia and abnormal vaginal discharge that looks like 'cottage cheese'. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and had her last period 5 days ago. What treatment should be recommended for the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Topical miconazole
Correct Answer: Oral fluconazole
Explanation:For non-pregnant women with vaginal thrush, the recommended first-line treatment is a single-dose of oral fluconazole. This is based on NICE guidelines for the diagnosis of vaginal candidiasis. The use of clotrimazole intravaginal pessary is only recommended if the patient is unable to take oral treatment due to safety concerns. Oral nystatin is not appropriate for this condition as it is used for oral candidiasis. While topical clotrimazole can be used to treat vaginal candidiasis, it is not the preferred first-line treatment and should only be used if fluconazole is not effective or contraindicated.
Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP with a recent history of dyspareunia, occasional post-coital spotting and lower abdominal pain since having sexual intercourse with a new partner without using barrier methods. Her menstrual cycle is regular, and a pregnancy test is negative.
A pelvic examination reveals a blood stained purulent discharge, and cervical excitation is elicited on bimanual examination. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 90 bpm and temperature 37.3 °C. Cervical and high-vaginal swabs are sent for analysis.
The patient reports she had two previous episodes of gonorrhoeal infection.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Await results of swabs and, if positive, prescribe oral antibiotics
Correct Answer: 1 g ceftriaxone IM (single dose), followed by metronidazole 400 mg orally twice daily and doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 14 days
Explanation:Treatment and Management of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a serious condition resulting from an ascending sexually transmitted infection, commonly caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Patients with PID may present with symptoms such as chronic lower abdominal pain, dyspareunia, irregular bleeding, dysmenorrhoea, and purulent vaginal discharge. It is important to identify and treat PID promptly, as it can lead to complications such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and pelvic adhesion formation.
The management of PID depends on the severity of the presentation. Patients who are haemodynamically stable can be treated in the primary care setting with a single dose of ceftriaxone IM, followed by metronidazole and doxycycline for 14 days. However, patients with pyrexia, nausea and vomiting, or suspicion of a tubo-ovarian abscess or pelvic peritonitis should be admitted to hospital for IV antibiotics.
It is important to note that NICE recommends treating patients who are likely to have PID without waiting for swab results. In patients considered high-risk for gonococcal infection, who have no indication for admission to hospital for parenteral antimicrobial treatment, a single dose of ceftriaxone 1 g IM, followed by 14 days of metronidazole and doxycycline is recommended. Ofloxacin, moxifloxacin, or azithromycin should be avoided in women at high risk of a gonococcal infection due to increased resistance against quinolones.
In conclusion, early identification and prompt treatment of PID is crucial to prevent complications. Treatment should be tailored to the severity of the presentation and the patient’s risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 3-year-old boy was brought to his GP by his mother, who had noticed a slight squint in his left eye. During the examination, the GP observed that the red reflex was absent.
What is the most accurate description of this child's condition?Your Answer: There is a significant risk for secondary malignancy in survivors
Explanation:Retinoblastoma: A Rare Eye Cancer with High Survival Rate but Risk of Secondary Malignancy
Retinoblastoma is a rare type of eye cancer that primarily affects children under the age of 5. It is characterized by an abnormal reflection in the pupil, appearing white instead of red, known as leucocoria. Most cases are caused by mutations in the retinoblastoma 1 (RB1) gene, located on chromosome 13, with one-third of cases being inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. Surgical removal of the tumor, usually through enucleation, is the standard treatment, and the 5-year survival rate is almost 100% if diagnosed and treated promptly.
However, survivors of retinoblastoma are at risk of developing secondary non-ocular tumors, including malignant melanoma, sarcoma, brain tumors, leukemia, and osteosarcoma. Therefore, regular monitoring throughout life is necessary. Most cases are diagnosed before the age of 5, with 90% of cases being diagnosed before the child’s fifth birthday. It is important to note that retinoblastoma is not a recessive condition, and the RB1 gene is located on chromosome 13, not 16.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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