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Question 1
Incorrect
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A group of politicians, all in their 50s, were attacked with an aerosol spray as they left a meeting. They presented to the Emergency department with symptoms of profuse tearing, eye pain, and corneal injuries. They also complained of shortness of breath, cough, and wheeze, and developed fever, nausea, and diarrhea within two hours of admission. One of the most severely affected patients had arterial blood gases showing hypoxemia and respiratory acidosis. Two of the patients eventually died despite maximal supportive care, while the other two required intubation and ventilation and had prolonged hospital stays. What was the likely substance present in the aerosol that caused this syndrome?
Your Answer: Sarin
Correct Answer: Ricin
Explanation:Ricin Poisoning
Given the current political climate and the rising risk of bioterrorism, it is important to remain vigilant in the emergency department. In cases of acute respiratory failure, it is important to consider potential causes and rule out infectious agents. Pepper spray and paraquat are unlikely culprits, but sarin and ricin should be considered.
Sarin has both muscarinic and nicotinic effects, which can cause paralysis, hyperglycemia, hypotension, and gastrointestinal disturbances. However, the symptoms described in the clinical situation are more consistent with ricin poisoning. When inhaled as a small particle aerosol, ricin can cause pathologic changes within eight hours and severe respiratory symptoms followed by acute hypoxic respiratory failure in 36-72 hours. Additionally, the patient may experience massive bleeding from the stomach and intestines, and is most likely to die from multiple organ failure.
Ricin’s toxicity lies in its ability to inhibit protein synthesis through the endonuclease activity of its A-chain. Laboratory findings in ricin inhalation are non-specific but similar to other pulmonary irritants that cause pulmonary edema. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and potential consequences of ricin poisoning in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further spread of the toxin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 2
Correct
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A 26-year-old HIV-positive male presents to his GP with new-onset headache and weakness on the left side of his body. Upon examination, his temperature is 38ºC, blood pressure is 115/70 mmHg, respirations are 14/min, and pulse is 73/min. Neurological assessment reveals reduced strength, hyperreflexia in the left upper and lower limb, and upgoing plantars. A CT scan of the head shows multiple ring-enhancing lesions.
What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine
Explanation:Toxoplasmosis is the most common cause of central nervous system mass lesion in AIDS patients, and this patient’s symptoms are consistent with cerebral toxoplasmosis. Treatment for toxoplasmosis involves sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine, while trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is used for prophylaxis. Brain irradiation is used for primary CNS lymphoma, which presents with weakly enhancing single or multiple lesions and afebrile patients. Brain biopsy is only considered if lesions do not respond to sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine. Albendazole is used for neurocysticercosis, which is not typically seen in AIDS patients.
Neurological complications are common in patients with HIV. Focal neurological lesions such as toxoplasmosis, primary CNS lymphoma, and tuberculosis can cause symptoms such as headache, confusion, and drowsiness. Toxoplasmosis is the most common cause of cerebral lesions in HIV patients and is treated with sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine. Primary CNS lymphoma, which is associated with the Epstein-Barr virus, is treated with steroids, chemotherapy, and whole brain irradiation. Differentiating between toxoplasmosis and lymphoma is important for proper treatment. Generalized neurological diseases such as encephalitis, cryptococcus, progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), and AIDS dementia complex can also occur in HIV patients. Encephalitis may be due to CMV or HIV itself, while cryptococcus is the most common fungal infection of the CNS. PML is caused by infection of oligodendrocytes by JC virus, and AIDS dementia complex is caused by the HIV virus itself. Proper diagnosis and treatment of these neurological complications is crucial for improving outcomes in HIV patients.
Neurological Complications in HIV Patients
Introduction to the common neurological complications in HIV patients, including focal neurological lesions such as toxoplasmosis, primary CNS lymphoma, and tuberculosis.
Details on the diagnosis and treatment of toxoplasmosis and primary CNS lymphoma, including the importance of differentiating between the two.
Overview of generalized neurological diseases in HIV patients, including encephalitis, cryptococcus, PML, and AIDS dementia complex.
Importance of proper diagnosis and treatment for improving outcomes in HIV patients with neurological complications. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
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A 26-year-old man with chronic renal failure received a renal transplant from a matched related donor. After being discharged with a functioning graft, he returned to the nephrology clinic a month later with a high fever and was admitted for further investigation. During his first evening in the hospital, his condition rapidly worsened, and he became dyspneic. A full blood count revealed significant leukopenia, and his liver function tests were severely abnormal. What is the probable cause of his illness?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:CMV Infection and Organ Transplantation
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality in patients who have undergone organ transplantation. The likelihood of developing CMV infection after transplantation depends on two primary factors: whether the donor or recipient has a latent virus that can reactivate after transplantation and the degree of immunosuppression after the procedure.
The most severe type of post-transplant CMV infection is primary disease, which occurs in individuals who have never been infected with CMV and receive an allograft that contains latent virus from a CMV-seropositive donor. This type of infection is the most common and can be particularly dangerous for patients who have undergone organ transplantation. Proper monitoring and management of CMV infection are essential for ensuring the best possible outcomes for these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of vesicles that progressed to scabs on her inner thigh along the L1 dermatome. She reports experiencing a burning sensation along the same dermatome before the vesicles appeared. The vesicles are only present on the left side of her body. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Herpes zoster
Explanation:Herpes Zoster
Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, is a viral infection that typically presents with a prodrome pain before the appearance of vesicles. This pain is usually localized to a specific dermatome, which is a specific area of skin that is innervated by a single spinal nerve. However, in individuals with weakened immune systems, the disease may affect more than one dermatome.
It is important to note that herpes simplex II, tinea inguinalis, streptococcal scalded skin syndrome, and staphylococcus aureus skin infection are not the same as herpes zoster. Herpes simplex II may cause vesicles, but it does not follow a specific dermatome. Tinea inguinalis does not form vesicles, but rather scabs around the groin or other folds. Streptococcal scalded skin syndrome appears as bullae that eventually burst and may be generalized. Staphylococcus aureus skin infection may resemble streptococcal scalded skin syndrome, but it is more likely to present with pustules.
In summary, the unique characteristics of herpes zoster and differentiating it from other skin infections is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department with two weeks of fevers, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia and low back pain. He has no significant past medical history. He does not take any medications. He works as a software engineer. There is no recent travel.
Observations:
Heart rate 94 beats per minute
Blood pressure 121/88 mmHg
Respiratory rate 19/minute
Oxygen saturation 96% on room air
Temperature 38.2ºC
On examination, there is focal tenderness at the left sacroiliac joint. Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. He is diaphoretic and an associated foul smell is noted. There is no joint swelling.
Urinalysis is unremarkable.
Plain radiography of the chest is normal.
Blood tests:
Hb 138 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 189 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 3.4 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 4.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 89 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 45 mg/L (< 5)
Bilirubin 12 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 89 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 35 u/L (3 - 40)
γGT 44 u/L (8 - 60)
Albumin 36 g/L (35 - 50)
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: HIV seroconversion
Correct Answer: Brucellosis
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for the unwell vet with symptoms of fever, malaise, arthralgia, and lower back pain is brucellosis. This is supported by the patient’s occupation as a veterinarian, which is a relevant occupational exposure. The location of the back pain suggests sacroiliitis, and the patient also experiences profuse sweating with a foul smell, which is typical of brucellosis.
Leptospirosis is an incorrect diagnosis as it typically presents with subconjunctival hemorrhages, headache, and pulmonary hemorrhage and jaundice in severe cases. Foul-smelling sweat is not a typical feature of leptospirosis.
Q fever is also an incorrect diagnosis as it is typically characterized by an atypical pneumonia, which is not present in this case. Additionally, sacroiliac involvement is not a feature of Q fever.
Understanding Brucellosis
Brucellosis is a disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans, and is more commonly found in the Middle East and among individuals who work with animals such as farmers, vets, and abattoir workers. The disease is caused by four major species of bacteria: B. melitensis (sheep), B. abortus (cattle), B. canis and B. suis (pigs). The incubation period for brucellosis is typically 2-6 weeks.
Symptoms of brucellosis are non-specific and may include fever and malaise, as well as hepatosplenomegaly and spinal tenderness. Complications of the disease can include osteomyelitis, infective endocarditis, meningoencephalitis, and orchitis. Leukopenia is also commonly seen in patients with brucellosis.
Diagnosis of brucellosis can be done through the Rose Bengal plate test for screening, but other tests are required to confirm the diagnosis. Brucella serology is the best test for diagnosis, and blood and bone marrow cultures may be suitable in certain patients, although these tests are often negative.
Management of brucellosis typically involves the use of doxycycline and streptomycin. It is important for individuals who work with animals to take precautions to prevent the transmission of brucellosis, such as wearing protective clothing and practicing good hygiene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with left-sided weakness and difficulty in finding words. She also complains of a headache and nausea for the last three days. She has no past medical history and does not smoke nor does she drink alcohol. She recently moved from Kenya to the US.
On examination, she has marked weakness in upper and lower left limbs and is unable to walk without assistance. Her responses to questions are slow and limited.
Blood tests:
Hb 129 g/l
Platelets 316 * 109/l
WBC 8.9 * 109/l
Na+ 141 mmol/l
K+ 4.7 mmol/l
Urea 5.1 mmol/l
Creatinine 71 µmol/l
HIV-1 serology positive
HIV-2 serology negative
HIV viral load pending
CD4 count pending
Toxoplasmosis serology pending
Cryptococcal antigen pending
A CT scan of her head demonstrates multiple ring-enhancing lesions and mass effect. Dexamethasone is started immediately. What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine
Explanation:The appropriate treatment for a patient with HIV, neurological symptoms, and multiple brain lesions with ring enhancement is pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine, as they are likely suffering from cerebral toxoplasmosis, which is an AIDS-defining illness. Methotrexate is used to treat CNS lymphoma, but this is unlikely given the presence of multiple lesions. Antiretroviral treatment should be initiated, but in a specialized setting rather than an acute one. Further imaging is unnecessary at this point and would only cause a delay in treatment.
Neurological complications are common in patients with HIV. Focal neurological lesions such as toxoplasmosis, primary CNS lymphoma, and tuberculosis can cause symptoms such as headache, confusion, and drowsiness. Toxoplasmosis is the most common cause of cerebral lesions in HIV patients and is treated with sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine. Primary CNS lymphoma, which is associated with the Epstein-Barr virus, is treated with steroids, chemotherapy, and whole brain irradiation. Differentiating between toxoplasmosis and lymphoma is important for proper treatment. Generalized neurological diseases such as encephalitis, cryptococcus, progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), and AIDS dementia complex can also occur in HIV patients. Encephalitis may be due to CMV or HIV itself, while cryptococcus is the most common fungal infection of the CNS. PML is caused by infection of oligodendrocytes by JC virus, and AIDS dementia complex is caused by the HIV virus itself. Proper diagnosis and treatment of these neurological complications is crucial for improving outcomes in HIV patients.
Neurological Complications in HIV Patients
Introduction to the common neurological complications in HIV patients, including focal neurological lesions such as toxoplasmosis, primary CNS lymphoma, and tuberculosis.
Details on the diagnosis and treatment of toxoplasmosis and primary CNS lymphoma, including the importance of differentiating between the two.
Overview of generalized neurological diseases in HIV patients, including encephalitis, cryptococcus, PML, and AIDS dementia complex.
Importance of proper diagnosis and treatment for improving outcomes in HIV patients with neurological complications. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 7
Correct
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A 26-year-old female patient complains of a sudden severe headache and fever. During the examination, she shows signs of nuchal rigidity and has a body temperature of 38°C. Upon further inquiry, she discloses that she has been treated twice before for similar symptoms and has been diagnosed with a complement deficiency. What is the most probable finding on the Gram stain of her cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
Your Answer: Gram negative diplococci
Explanation:Identifying the Causative Agent of Meningitis
Meningococcal meningitis is the likely diagnosis for this patient based on her symptoms and history of complement deficiency. The causative agent, Neisseria meningitidis, can be identified through Gram staining, which reveals Gram negative diplococci. It is important to note that Gram negative bacilli, such as Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, and pseudomonas, would suggest a different organism. Similarly, Gram positive cocci in clumps indicate staphylococci, while Gram positive cocci in chains suggest streptococci. In cases of viral meningitis, multiple lymphocytes may be present on Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid, but no organisms will be visible.
Overall, identifying the causative agent of meningitis is crucial for effective treatment. Gram staining is a useful tool in determining the type of organism present and can help guide appropriate therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old man presents to the medical outpatient clinic with complaints of increasing breathlessness, particularly on exertion. He has also experienced several fainting episodes in the past few months, with associated chest sensations and rapid recovery. His medical history is unremarkable except for childhood treatment with antibiotics for an eye infection. He has been experiencing constipation and is currently taking Senna and Movicol. On examination, he has a displaced apex beat, normal heart sounds, and mild coarse crepitations at both lung bases. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vasovagal syncope
Correct Answer: Chagas disease
Explanation:Chagas disease, which is caused by Trypanosoma cruzi, can be identified by the presence of Romana’s sign (swelling around the eye after being bitten by the Trypanosome) during childhood. In later life, symptoms such as heart failure and constipation may also indicate the presence of the disease.
Understanding Trypanosomiasis
Trypanosomiasis is a protozoal disease that comes in two main forms: African trypanosomiasis, also known as sleeping sickness, and American trypanosomiasis, or Chagas’ disease. The former has two types: Trypanosoma gambiense in West Africa and Trypanosoma rhodesiense in East Africa, both of which are spread by the tsetse fly. Trypanosoma rhodesiense tends to have a more acute course. Symptoms include a painless subcutaneous nodule at the site of infection, intermittent fever, enlargement of posterior cervical lymph nodes, and later, central nervous system involvement such as somnolence, headaches, mood changes, and meningoencephalitis.
On the other hand, American trypanosomiasis is caused by the protozoan Trypanosoma cruzi. In the acute phase, the vast majority of patients (95%) are asymptomatic, although a chagoma (an erythematous nodule at the site of infection) and periorbital oedema are sometimes seen. Chronic Chagas’ disease mainly affects the heart and gastrointestinal tract, with myocarditis leading to dilated cardiomyopathy (with apical atrophy) and arrhythmias, and gastrointestinal features including megaoesophagus and megacolon causing dysphagia and constipation.
Early disease management for African trypanosomiasis involves IV pentamidine or suramin, while later disease or central nervous system involvement requires IV melarsoprol. Treatment for American trypanosomiasis is most effective in the acute phase using azole or nitroderivatives such as benznidazole or nifurtimox. Chronic disease management involves treating the complications, such as heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with palpitations and a productive cough of green sputum. She reports feeling feverish and lethargic. Upon examination, she has bronchial breathing at her right base, a respiratory rate of 25/min, and sats of 95% on room air. Her heart sounds are normal, but she has an irregularly irregular heartbeat with a heart rate of 120/min and blood pressure of 90/40 mmHg. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a fast ventricular rate. Despite having no prior history of atrial fibrillation, what is the initial treatment that should be administered for her condition?
Your Answer: Oral antibiotics
Correct Answer: Intravenous fluids
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting signs of sepsis caused by pneumonia, which has resulted in atrial fibrillation (AF) despite no prior history of the condition. Treating the sepsis is crucial in addressing the AF. Administering IV fluids and antibiotics is necessary. If the AF persists even after the sepsis has been resolved, alternative treatment options will be explored.
Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. The Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognise sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, while septic shock is a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favour, with quickSOFA (qSOFA) score being used to identify adult patients outside of ICU with suspected infection who are at heightened risk of mortality.
Management of sepsis involves identifying and treating the underlying cause of the patient’s condition, as well as providing support regardless of the cause or severity. NICE guidelines recommend using red flag and amber flag criteria for risk stratification. If any of the red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started straight away, which includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.
To help identify and categorise patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasising the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 10
Correct
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A 75-year-old man presents with a 5 month history of feeling generally unwell, being more breathless and tired than usual, feeling feverish and having a dry cough. He had already been treated by the General Practitioner with 2 courses of antibiotics in the community with only temporary improvement. His past medical history includes previous myocardial infarction, permanent pacemaker (PPM) with box-change 6 months ago, hypertension, diabetes, anaemia and chronic kidney disease (stage 2). He is a lifelong smoker.
On examination his heart sounds were normal with no murmurs, he had scattered crackles and his abdomen was soft and non-tender. There was mild leg oedema and a faint purpuric rash on his shins. His vital signs revealed heart rate = 80 beats per minute, blood pressure = 130/70 mmHg, T=37.8oC, SaO2 = 96% on air and respiratory rate = 20 breaths per minute. His chest X-ray did not show and consolidation and his urine was clear.
The following blood tests have been obtained:
Hb 10.5 g/dl
MCV 95 fl
Platelets 160 * 109/l
WBC 13.4 * 109/l
Na+ 132 mmol/l
K+ 4.9 mmol/l
Urea 12 mmol/l
Creatinine 150 µmol/l
CRP 100 mg/l
Blood cultures grow coagulase negative staphylococci and you notice that during his previous admission in the hospital he also had positive blood cultures for coagulase-negative staphylococci.
What is the most appropriate next investigation?Your Answer: Urgent transoesophageal echocardiogram
Explanation:It is important to recognize the significance of blood cultures positive for coagulase-negative staphylococci. While these organisms are often considered harmless skin contaminants, they can cause serious infections in the presence of prosthetic devices such as pacemakers, heart valves, and orthopedic prostheses. This is due to their ability to form biofilms on artificial surfaces.
In the case of a patient presenting with symptoms of a chronic infection and blood cultures positive for coagulase-negative staphylococci, the presence of a pacemaker and purpuric rash suggest that the source of sepsis may be related to the medical device. Repeating blood cultures may not be helpful in identifying the source of sepsis, but a CT scan can be useful in identifying most sources of sepsis.
However, in this case, a transoesophageal echocardiogram is the best investigation to rule out pacemaker-wire related infections. While this requires expertise and may not be readily available, it is the most effective way to identify the source of sepsis in this scenario. It is important to be aware of the potential for coagulase-negative staphylococci to cause device-related infections and to take appropriate measures to prevent and treat these infections.
Understanding Staphylococci: Common Bacteria with Different Types
Staphylococci are a type of bacteria that are commonly found in the human body. They are gram-positive cocci and are facultative anaerobes that produce catalase. While they are usually harmless, they can also cause invasive diseases. There are two main types of Staphylococci that are important to know: Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis.
Staphylococcus aureus is coagulase-positive and is known to cause skin infections such as cellulitis, abscesses, osteomyelitis, and toxic shock syndrome. On the other hand, Staphylococcus epidermidis is coagulase-negative and is often the cause of central line infections and infective endocarditis.
It is important to understand the different types of Staphylococci and their potential to cause disease in order to properly diagnose and treat infections. By identifying the type of Staphylococci present, healthcare professionals can determine the appropriate course of treatment and prevent the spread of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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