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Question 1
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A slightly overweight 44-year-old man and his spouse visit the GP with concerns about his recent behavior. The wife reports that he has been acting strangely for the past 2 months, becoming easily irritated and frequently criticizing her and their children. Initially, the changes were subtle, but now arguments occur every other day. The husband doesn't acknowledge any issues, and you observe that he struggles to initiate conversations and often pauses mid-sentence. There is no significant family history, and the husband is not on any regular medications.
What is the probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia
Explanation:Pick’s disease, also known as frontotemporal dementia, is a type of dementia that typically affects individuals under the age of 65. This condition can manifest in various forms, with some patients experiencing changes in personality and behavior. In some cases, patients may also struggle with speech production and literacy skills, a condition known as primary progressive aphasia.
It is highly unlikely for a 40-year-old to develop Alzheimer’s disease or vascular dementia. Huntington’s disease, which is associated with dementia and personality changes, typically presents with motor dysfunction and tends to have a strong genetic component. While B12 deficiency can cause symptoms of dementia, it is often accompanied by other neurological changes, fatigue, and bowel issues.
Understanding Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration
Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a type of cortical dementia that is the third most common after Alzheimer’s and Lewy body dementia. There are three recognized types of FTLD: Frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease), Progressive non-fluent aphasia (chronic progressive aphasia, CPA), and Semantic dementia.
FTLD is characterized by an onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. Pick’s disease is the most common type of FTLD and is characterized by personality change and impaired social conduct. Other common features include hyperorality, disinhibition, increased appetite, and perseveration behaviors. Focal gyral atrophy with a knife-blade appearance is characteristic of Pick’s disease.
CPA is characterized by non-fluent speech, where the patient makes short utterances that are agrammatic. Comprehension is relatively preserved. Semantic dementia, on the other hand, is characterized by fluent progressive aphasia. The speech is fluent but empty and conveys little meaning. Unlike in Alzheimer’s, memory is better for recent rather than remote events.
In terms of management, NICE doesn’t recommend the use of AChE inhibitors or memantine in people with frontotemporal dementia. Understanding the different types of FTLD and their characteristics can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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Liam is a 26-year-old man who complained of hearing loss and was diagnosed with bilateral impacted wax. Despite using olive oil drops for a week, there was no improvement.
What other options can be considered at this point?Your Answer: Sodium bicarbonate drops
Explanation:When attempting to remove impacted earwax, it is recommended to try olive oil drops first. If this method is unsuccessful, other options such as almond oil drops, sodium bicarbonate drops, and sodium chloride drops can be considered. Otomize and betamethasone ear drops are commonly used for treating otitis externa. It is important to avoid attempting to remove earwax through ear candling or the use of cotton buds.
Understanding earwax and Its Impacts
earwax is a natural substance produced by the body to protect the ear canal. However, it is not uncommon for earwax to become impacted, leading to a range of symptoms such as pain, hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. In such cases, treatment is necessary to alleviate the discomfort caused by the impacted earwax. Primary care options for treatment include ear drops or irrigation, also known as ‘ear syringing’. It is important to note that treatment should not be administered if there is a suspected perforation or if the patient has grommets. Ear drops such as olive oil, sodium bicarbonate 5%, and almond oil can be used to help alleviate the symptoms of impacted earwax.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 3
Correct
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A 29-year-old female complains of a chronic cough and sensation of wheezing following physical activity. What factor would increase the likelihood of an asthma diagnosis?
Your Answer: Symptoms worsen after taking aspirin
Explanation:A cough that produces sputum, symptoms only after an upper respiratory tract infection, and peripheral pins and needles are all factors that make a diagnosis of asthma less likely.
When considering asthma, it is important to take into account recurrent episodes of symptoms that may be triggered by viral infections, exposure to allergens, NSAIDs/beta-blockers, and exacerbated by exercise, cold air, and emotions/laughter in children. It is also important to note recorded observations of wheezing, which should be documented by a clinician due to varying use of language. Symptom variability is another factor to consider, as asthma is typically worse at night or early in the morning. A personal history of atopy, such as eczema or allergic rhinitis, should also be taken into account. Additionally, the absence of symptoms of alternative diagnoses, such as COPD, dysfunctional breathing, or obesity, should be considered. Finally, a historical record of variable peak flows or FEV1 can also be helpful in diagnosing asthma.
Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner complaining of an itchy rash on his genitals and palms. He has also observed the rash around the area of a recent scar on his forearm. Upon examination, the doctor notices papules with a white-lace pattern on the surface. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lichen sclerosus
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Lichen planus is a skin condition characterized by a rash of purple, itchy, polygonal papules on the flexor surfaces of the body. The affected area may also have Wickham’s striae. Oral involvement is common. In elderly women, lichen sclerosus may present as itchy white spots on the vulva.
Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.
Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl with a history of a learning disability comes to an appointment with her parents. She is otherwise generally well, but her parents have come to ask for more information about her risk of health problems. They have read that people with learning disabilities have a higher risk of other health problems and would like more information.
Which of the following conditions is less prevalent in individuals with learning disabilities?Your Answer: Epilepsy
Correct Answer: Lung cancer
Explanation:Common Health Conditions in People with Learning Disabilities
People with learning disabilities are at a higher risk of developing certain health conditions. Here are some of the most common health conditions in this population:
Lung Cancer
Although less common in people with learning disabilities, lung cancer rates decrease with increasing severity of the disability. This is likely due to a decrease in smoking rates and lower occupational exposure to carcinogens.Diabetes
People with learning disabilities have a higher prevalence of diabetes due to lower levels of activity, poor diet, and higher rates of obesity.Epilepsy
Epilepsy is more prevalent in people with learning disabilities, with around 22% of this population thought to have the condition compared to 0.5-2% in the general population.Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is more common in people with learning disabilities compared to the general population.Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is three times more prevalent in people with learning disabilities than in the general population. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 6
Correct
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A 45-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of lower back pain and stiffness that has been gradually developing over the past month. He reports using a hot water bottle for some relief, but the pain persists. He denies any loss of bladder or bowel control and his neurological exam is unremarkable.
What would be the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:NSAIDS should be the first choice for treating lower back pain. Codeine, which is part of the opioid pain ladder, should not be used for managing nonspecific lower back pain as it can lead to dependence and dose escalation. Additionally, administering codeine via IM is only recommended for patients who cannot tolerate oral medication, which is not applicable in this case. Therefore, oral codeine should not be considered as a primary treatment option for nonspecific lower back pain.
Management of Lower Back Pain: NICE Guidelines
Lower back pain is a common condition that affects many people. In 2016, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of lower back pain. These guidelines apply to patients with nonspecific lower back pain, which means it is not caused by malignancy, infection, trauma, or other specific conditions.
According to the updated guidelines, NSAIDs are now recommended as the first-line treatment for back pain. Paracetamol monotherapy is relatively ineffective for back pain, so NSAIDs are a better option. Proton pump inhibitors should be co-prescribed for patients over the age of 45 years who are given NSAIDs.
Lumbar spine x-ray should not be offered as an investigation for nonspecific back pain. MRI should only be offered to patients with nonspecific back pain if the result is likely to change management, or if malignancy, infection, fracture, cauda equina, or ankylosing spondylitis is suspected. MRI is the most useful imaging modality as it can see neurological and soft tissue structures.
Patients with low back pain should be encouraged to self-manage and stay physically active through exercise. A group exercise program within the NHS is recommended for people with back pain. Manual therapy, such as spinal manipulation, mobilization, or soft tissue techniques like massage, can be considered as part of a treatment package that includes exercise and psychological therapy. Radiofrequency denervation and epidural injections of local anesthetic and steroid can also be used for acute and severe sciatica.
In summary, the updated NICE guidelines recommend NSAIDs as the first-line treatment for nonspecific back pain. Patients should be encouraged to self-manage and stay physically active through exercise. MRI is the most useful imaging modality for investigating nonspecific back pain. Other treatments, such as manual therapy, radiofrequency denervation, and epidural injections, can be considered as part of a treatment package that includes exercise and psychological therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 7
Correct
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What is considered a second degree relative according to the latest guidance on referral for genetic counselling for inherited conditions?
Your Answer: Half sibling
Explanation:Understanding the Degree of Relationship in Medicine
In medicine, it is crucial to comprehend the degree of relationship to interpret referral guidelines for various conditions. With the advancement of genetic predisposition knowledge and the emergence of robust referral guidelines, this area of medicine is becoming increasingly important. The NHS National Genetics and Genomics Education Centre defines a person’s first degree relative as a parent, sibling, or child, sharing about half of their genes with the person. A second degree relative includes an uncle, aunt, nephew, niece, grandparent, grandchild, or half-sibling, sharing about one quarter of their genes with the person. Lastly, a third degree relative is a first cousin, great-grandparent, or great-grandchild, sharing about one eighth of their genes with the person. Understanding the degree of relationship is essential in determining the likelihood of genetic predisposition and the appropriate referral guidelines for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient presents five days after abruptly discontinuing diazepam, which he had been taking for more than two years. He reports feeling generally unwell. What symptom would indicate a condition other than benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome?
Your Answer: Hypothermia
Explanation:Benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome doesn’t include hypothermia as a symptom.
Benzodiazepines are drugs that enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, which has an inhibitory effect on the brain. This makes them useful for a variety of purposes, including sedation, anxiety relief, muscle relaxation, and as anticonvulsants. However, patients can develop a tolerance and dependence on these drugs, so they should only be prescribed for short periods of time. When withdrawing from benzodiazepines, it is important to do so gradually, reducing the dose every few weeks. If patients withdraw too quickly, they may experience benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms including insomnia, anxiety, and seizures. Other drugs, such as barbiturates, work in a similar way but have different effects on the duration or frequency of chloride channel opening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 9
Correct
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A 45-year-old teacher visits her General Practitioner (GP) for the first time seeking help for her alcohol dependence. She explains that she has been using alcohol to cope with work stress and has gradually increased her daily drinking to 15-20 units. She has no significant medical history other than her alcohol use. She has a normal body mass index and reports a balanced diet. After assessing her, the GP refers her to specialist services. What would be the most appropriate management plan for thiamine use in a community-based assisted alcohol withdrawal programme?
Your Answer: Offer an oral preparation of thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy
Explanation:Thiamine Replacement for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcoholics
Thiamine deficiency is common in alcoholics due to poor diet and reduced absorption. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a neuropsychiatric complication caused by thiamine deficiency and occurs frequently in chronic alcohol dependence. Oral thiamine can be given at a maximum dose of 300 mg/day for healthy, well-nourished individuals. However, parenteral high-potency B complex vitamins should be considered for all other patients undergoing withdrawal despite the risk of anaphylaxis. Thiamine doesn’t prevent delirium tremens, and admission is required for inpatient detoxification if the patient presents acutely with evidence of this. Thiamine replacement is futile for Korsakoff syndrome, which is characterized by severe short-term memory loss and associated functional impairment. An ongoing prescription of lower doses of thiamine is suggested if there is concern about chronic deficiency after initial replacement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 10
Correct
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A 49-year-old accountant presents with severe central chest pain. An ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. The patient undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention and a right coronary artery occlusion is successfully stented. Post-procedure, there are no complications and echocardiography shows an ejection fraction of 50%. The patient inquires about the impact on his driving as he relies on his car for commuting to work. What guidance should you provide regarding his ability to drive?
Your Answer: Stop driving for at least 1 week, no need to inform the DVLA
Explanation:Driving can resume after hospital discharge if the patient has successfully undergone coronary angioplasty and there are no other disqualifying conditions. However, if the patient is a bus, taxi, or lorry driver, they must inform the DVLA and refrain from driving for a minimum of 6 weeks.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.
Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of headaches, nausea and vomiting, and blurred vision that have been going on for two days.
She has been wearing glasses since she was a child due to her long-sightedness. She has a history of severe migraines and was recently prescribed a prophylactic medication by her GP.
During the examination, both of her eyes appear red, and her pupils are mid-dilated and unreactive in both eyes.
What is the probable medication responsible for this presentation?Your Answer: Sumatriptan
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:Topiramate: Mechanisms of Action and Contraceptive Considerations
Topiramate is a medication primarily used to treat seizures. It can be used alone or in combination with other drugs. The drug has multiple mechanisms of action, including blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels, increasing GABA action, and inhibiting carbonic anhydrase. The latter effect results in a decrease in urinary citrate excretion and the formation of alkaline urine, which favors the creation of calcium phosphate stones.
Topiramate is known to induce the P450 enzyme CYP3A4, which can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. Therefore, the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH) recommends that patients taking topiramate consider alternative forms of contraception. For example, the combined oral contraceptive pill and progestogen-only pill are not recommended, while the implant is generally considered safe.
Topiramate can cause several side effects, including reduced appetite and weight loss, dizziness, paraesthesia, lethargy, and poor concentration. However, the most significant risk associated with topiramate is the potential for fetal malformations. Additionally, rare but important side effects include acute myopia and secondary angle-closure glaucoma. Overall, topiramate is a useful medication for treating seizures, but patients should be aware of its potential side effects and contraceptive considerations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 12
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with chronic renal failure presents with anaemia.
Select the single most likely cause.Your Answer: Erythropoietin deficiency
Explanation:Understanding Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease
Anaemia is a common complication in patients with chronic kidney disease, with a prevalence of about 12%. As the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) falls, the prevalence of anaemia increases. Patients should be investigated if their haemoglobin falls to 110g/L or less or if symptoms of anaemia develop.
The typical normochromic normocytic anaemia of chronic kidney disease mainly develops from decreased renal synthesis of erythropoietin. Anaemia becomes more severe as the glomerular filtration rate decreases. Iron deficiency is also common and may be due to poor dietary intake or occult bleeding. Other factors contributing to anaemia include the presence of uraemic inhibitors, a reduced half-life of circulating blood cells, or deficiency of folate or vitamin B12.
Although supplements of vitamin C have been used as adjuvant therapy in the anaemia of chronic kidney disease, NICE recommends that they should not be prescribed for this purpose as evidence suggests no benefit. It is important to monitor and manage anaemia in patients with chronic kidney disease to improve their quality of life and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about warfarin is accurate?
Your Answer: All patients with an INR of greater than 6.0 should be given vitamin K
Correct Answer: Warfarin can be used when breastfeeding
Explanation:Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.
Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimens and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.
Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.
In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Correct
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A 68-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a mild, resting tremor in his arms and legs. Upon examination, it is slightly more pronounced on his left side. There is also a slight stiffness and slowness of movement in his arms. His blood pressure measures 150/85 mmHg.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer: Idiopathic Parkinson's disease (IPD)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Stiffness and Tremor
When presented with a patient exhibiting stiffness and tremor, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In the case of this patient, the most likely diagnosis is idiopathic Parkinson’s disease (IPD), as the tremor is asymmetric and worsens at rest, and the patient displays slowness of movement and rigidity.
Cervical myelopathy is less likely, as it is characterized by neck pain with upper motor neuron signs in the legs and lower motor neuron signs in the arms, which are not present in this patient. Essential tremor, which is worse on movement, is also less likely, as the tremor described here is a resting tremor.
Hyperthyroidism could cause fine tremor and proximal muscle weakness, but no other specific features are seen in this patient. Ischaemic small-vessel disease (ISVD) can be associated with Parkinsonism, but the unilateral symptoms and lack of other neurological signs make IPD a more likely diagnosis.
In summary, when presented with a patient exhibiting stiffness and tremor, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses, but in this case, IPD is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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The standardised mortality ratio for a group of elderly patients with antisocial personality disorder is 120 (95% CI 90-130). How should this result be interpreted?
Your Answer: Patients with antisocial personality disorder have a mortality rate similar to the normal population
Correct Answer: The result is not statistically significant
Explanation:The statistical significance of the result is questionable since the confidence interval encompasses values below 100. This implies that there is a possibility that the actual value could be lower than 100, contradicting the observed value of 120 that indicates a rise in mortality within this group.
Understanding the Standardised Mortality Ratio
The standardised mortality ratio (SMR) is a useful tool for comparing mortality rates across different populations. It takes into account confounding factors such as age and sex, which can affect mortality rates. The SMR is calculated by dividing the observed deaths by the expected deaths, sometimes multiplied by 100.
An SMR of 100 or 1 indicates that the mortality rate in the population being studied is the same as the standard population. If the SMR is greater than 100, it suggests a higher than expected mortality rate. The SMR is a valuable tool for researchers and policymakers to identify populations with higher mortality rates and to develop interventions to address the underlying causes. By understanding the SMR, we can better understand mortality rates and work towards improving health outcomes for all populations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 16
Correct
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A 27-year-old male visits his GP after experiencing 3 episodes of prickling sensations in his left arm accompanied by involuntary jerking, lasting for a minute each time. He remains conscious during the episodes. The patient has a history of asthma and a nut allergy but is not taking any regular medications. After being referred to a neurologist, he is diagnosed with focal epilepsy and prescribed lamotrigine. What uncommon side effect should the patient be advised about, particularly in the initial 8 weeks of treatment?
Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Explanation:Lamotrigine therapy is associated with a rare but acknowledged adverse effect.
Lamotrigine is a medication that is primarily used as an antiepileptic drug. It is typically prescribed as a second-line treatment for a range of generalised and partial seizures. The drug works by blocking sodium channels in the body, which helps to reduce the occurrence of seizures.
Despite its effectiveness in treating seizures, lamotrigine can also cause a number of adverse effects. One of the most serious of these is Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a rare but potentially life-threatening skin condition. Other possible side effects of the drug include dizziness, headache, nausea, and blurred vision. It is important for patients taking lamotrigine to be aware of these potential risks and to report any unusual symptoms to their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man with a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolaemia presents as an emergency. He was at home four days ago when he experienced slurred speech and weakness in his right arm. His wife noticed that his face appeared droopy on one side and he had difficulty raising his right arm. The episode lasted for about 90 minutes before resolving on its own. His wife ignored it, but his son insisted that they bring him to the clinic. On examination, his blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg, he is in sinus rhythm at 70 bpm, and there are no focal neurological findings. He takes aspirin 75 mg daily. The diagnosis is a transient ischaemic attack. What is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer: Continue aspirin 75 mg and arrange urgent assessment by a specialist stroke physician within 24 hours
Correct Answer: Continue aspirin 75 mg OD and as symptoms have fully resolved arrange follow-up at the practice in one week to optimise her blood pressure control
Explanation:Updated Guidance for Assessing Patients with TIA
Some healthcare professionals may still be using the old ABCD2 scoring system for assessing patients with a transient ischemic attack (TIA). However, updated guidance advises that if a patient has had a TIA within the last week, they should be given 300 mg aspirin immediately and urgently assessed by a specialist stroke physician within 24 hours. Exceptions include patients with bleeding disorders or those taking anticoagulants, in which case immediate admission for urgent assessment and imaging is necessary. Patients taking low-dose aspirin regularly should continue their current dose until reviewed by a specialist, while those for whom aspirin is contraindicated should have their management discussed urgently with the specialist team.
To aid in rapid assessment, the Face Arm Speech Test (FAST test) can be used. This test is positive if the patient exhibits new facial weakness (such as drooping of the mouth or eye), arm weakness, or speech difficulty (such as slurring or difficulty in finding names for commonplace objects). Proper assessment and management of patients with TIA can help prevent future strokes and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 18
Incorrect
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According to NICE guidance on lipid modification (CG181), in which of the following elderly patients would you use a QRISK2 risk assessment tool to decide whether or not to initiate treatment with a lipid-lowering agent?
Your Answer: An 81-year-old man with type 2 diabetes
Correct Answer: A 48-year-old man with established CVD
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Lipid Modification
The NICE guidance on lipid modification (CG181) provides advice on assessing cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk for primary prevention. The guidance recommends using the QRISK2 risk assessment tool to assess CVD risk in individuals up to and including age 84 years. However, the tool should not be used for people with type 1 diabetes or those with an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) less than 60 ml/min/1.73 m2 and/or albuminuria, as they are already at increased risk of CVD. For people with type 2 diabetes, the QRISK2 tool should be used to assess CVD risk. It is also important to note that a risk assessment tool should not be used for individuals who are at high risk of developing CVD due to familial hypercholesterolaemia or other inherited disorders of lipid metabolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 25-year-old patient presents with episodes of blurred vision. The vision is blurred in both eyes. This has been going on for a few weeks but seems worse over the last couple of days. She has not had any headaches. Her eyes look normal and are not red or injected. Visual acuity using a Snellen chart is 6/4. When a pinhole occluder is used to assess her vision, her vision improves.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Suggest she attends her optician for a vision assessment
Explanation:Using a pinhole occluder can help identify if refractive errors are causing a patient’s blurred vision. Refractive errors are the most common cause of blurred vision, and a pinhole occluder can partially improve symptoms. However, visual acuity may be reduced when using a Snellen chart. If a patient complains of blurred vision, they should see an optician for an assessment and may need an updated prescription.
There are no indications in the patient’s history that suggest an acute Intracranial cause for their symptoms. Therefore, there is no need for an urgent CT head or referral to neurology. However, if the patient experiences sudden loss of vision or other associated symptoms such as limb weakness or changes in speech, it may indicate an acute intracranial or vascular cause that requires urgent investigation.
Triptan-based medications are typically used to treat migraines, which can present with blurred vision as an ‘aura’ before the onset of a headache. However, this is not the case for this patient.
Vitamin A deficiency can cause dry skin and hair, inability to gain weight, and skin sores. It may also lead to reduced night vision or decreased ability to see in the dark. However, there is no evidence that supplementing the patient’s vitamin A would improve their blurred vision. It is best for the patient to be assessed by an optician first.
Blurred vision refers to a loss of clarity or sharpness in one’s vision. It is a common symptom experienced by patients with long-term refractive errors. However, the term can have different meanings for different patients and doctors, so it is important to assess for other associated symptoms such as visual loss, double vision, and floaters.
There are various causes of blurred vision, including cataracts, retinal detachment, age-related macular degeneration, acute angle closure glaucoma, optic neuritis, and amaurosis fugax. To determine the underlying cause, a visual acuity test using a Snellen chart, pinhole occluders, visual fields, and fundoscopy may be conducted.
Management of blurred vision depends on the suspected underlying cause. If the onset is gradual, corrected by a pinhole occluder, and there are no other associated symptoms, an optician review may be the next step. However, patients with other associated symptoms such as visual loss or pain should be seen by an ophthalmologist urgently.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is currently receiving olanzapine depot injections to manage his psychotic symptoms. Prior to starting the treatment, his psychiatrist conducted a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function test. If the patient continues to take olanzapine in the long term, how frequently should these parameters be monitored?
Your Answer: 6 Monthly
Correct Answer: Annually
Explanation:Before starting a patient on antipsychotics and on an annual basis thereafter, it is recommended to conduct a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function test. Any other options presented in this scenario are incorrect. It is important to note that different antipsychotics may have varying monitoring requirements, and consulting the BNF is advised if unfamiliar with these drugs.
Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You encounter a 60-year-old man with diabetes and hypertension who reports experiencing erectile dysfunction for the past 6 months. After prescribing sildenafil, which provided some relief, you increased the dosage but the patient is now experiencing adverse effects. He is curious about other treatment options available to him through the NHS. What medications can be prescribed for his condition?
Your Answer: There are no treatments available on the NHS for erectile dysfunction
Correct Answer: Generic sildenafil, other PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil
Explanation:Men who have diabetes may be prescribed other PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil on the NHS. Generic sildenafil is available without any restrictions on the NHS. However, Viagra®, tadalafil (Cialis®), vardenafil (Levitra®), avanafil (Spedra®), and alprostadil cannot be prescribed on an NHS prescription, except for men who have certain medical conditions or have undergone specific medical procedures. Additionally, specialist centers may prescribe PDE-5 inhibitors on the NHS if the man is experiencing severe distress due to impotence.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with heart failure complains of increasing shortness of breath. During examination, his peripheral oedema has worsened since his last visit (pitting to mid shins, previously to ankles). He has bibasal crackles on auscultation of his lungs; his blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg but his heart rate and oxygen saturations are within normal limits. His current medication includes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, loop diuretic and beta-blocker.
What is the most appropriate management to alleviate symptoms and decrease mortality?Your Answer: Add spironolactone
Explanation:Treatment Options for a Patient with Worsening Heart Failure
When a patient with worsening heart failure is already on the recommended combination of an ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and loop diuretic, adding low-dose spironolactone can further reduce cardiovascular mortality. However, it is important to monitor renal function and potassium levels. Stopping beta-blockers suddenly can cause rebound ischaemic events and arrhythmias, so reducing the dose may be a better option if spironolactone therapy doesn’t improve symptoms. Adding digoxin can help reduce breathlessness, but it has no effect on mortality. If the patient has an atherosclerotic cause of heart failure, adding high-intensity statins like simvastatin may be appropriate for secondary prevention. Stopping ACE inhibitors is not recommended as they have a positive prognostic benefit in chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female presents to the clinic with a complaint of amenorrhea for the past eight months. She reports weight gain and decreased libido during this time and has noticed milk production from her breasts. Her last sexual encounter was about seven months ago. On examination, vital signs are normal, and there are no abnormalities on abdominal examination. Galactorrhea is confirmed on expression. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Prolactinoma
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Signs and Symptoms of Hyperprolactinaemia
This patient is presenting with several signs and symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia, including weight gain, loss of libido, menstrual disturbance, and galactorrhoea. While conditions such as PCOS, depression, and Cushing’s can cause weight gain and menstrual changes, galactorrhoea is only associated with pregnancy, prolactinoma, certain medications, and hypothyroidism.
It is important to note that the patient’s normal abdominal examination after ten months of amenorrhea, with her last sexual encounter occurring nine months prior, rules out pregnancy as a potential cause for her symptoms. Further investigation and testing may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of her hyperprolactinaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with spinal pain. He has a history of bronchial carcinoma. Which of the following signs is LEAST indicative of spinal metastases?
Select ONE answer only.Your Answer: Cervical spine or thoracic pain of recent origin
Correct Answer: Lumbar pain relieved by rest and aggravated by movement
Explanation:Recognizing Spinal Metastases: Symptoms and Risks
Spinal metastases pose a significant risk of spinal cord compression, affecting 5-10% of all cancer patients. While all options may indicate spinal metastases, it is crucial to identify specific symptoms. Lumbar pain that worsens with movement and improves with rest is a common symptom of mechanical back pain, but other concerning features include progressive and nocturnal spinal pain. If a patient presents with symptoms suggestive of spinal metastases, doctors should consult with the local metastatic spinal cord coordinator within 24 hours to ensure prompt and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is brought in by his mother because of dryness and irritation around the corners of his mouth. He doesn't tend to drink much and licks his lips because they're so dry. On examination he has evidence of angular stomatitis.
How would you treat his angular stomatitis?Your Answer: Prescribe miconazole cream for 1 week
Correct Answer: Prescribe aciclovir cream for 1 week
Explanation:Angular Stomatitis and Candida Infection
Angular stomatitis is a common condition that is often caused by dryness, chapping, and licking of the lips. It can also be caused by salivation and drooling, which can lead to irritation. Candida infection is a common cause of angular stomatitis, although secondary infection with staphylococcal aureus should also be considered.
When it comes to treatment, the clinical scenario in this case is more in keeping with candida infection. Miconazole cream is usually the first line of treatment for candida infection, while mild topical corticosteroids can be used to treat dermatitis. If the condition is unresponsive to miconazole alone, hydrocortisone can be added.
It’s important to note that contact dermatitis is often a differential diagnosis for angular stomatitis. Aciclovir cream is used for herpes simplex lesions, while fusidic acid can be used to treat small areas of staphylococcal infection. Hydromol is a simple emollient and will not treat candida infections.
In some cases, no treatment is needed, and angular cheilitis resolves by itself. However, most cases are accompanied by superimposed candida infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 26
Correct
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A 35-year-old man has type 2 diabetes. He is a group 1 driver with a valid driving licence.
He wants to know if he needs to inform the DVLA about his condition.
Which patients with diabetes must by law inform the DVLA about their condition?Your Answer: There are no requirements for patients with diabetes to inform the DVLA
Explanation:DVLA Guidelines for Diabetic Drivers
Drivers with diabetes do not need to inform the DVLA if their condition is managed by tablets or diet and they are free of complications such as visual impairment or hypoglycaemic attacks. However, if they are taking tablets that can induce hypoglycaemia, such as sulphonylureas, they must inform the DVLA. Additionally, if they have experienced more than one episode of severe hypoglycaemia within the last 12 months or are at high risk of developing it, they must also inform the DVLA.
In January 2016, the DVLA updated their guidelines, which may be reflected in AKT exam questions. It is important for drivers with diabetes to familiarize themselves with any additions or amendments. One of the changes made was to revise the wording for Group 1 drivers who are managed by tablets that carry a risk of inducing hypoglycaemia, including sulphonylureas and glinides.
It is important to note that drivers who are treated with insulin must inform the DVLA by law. Some people with diabetes may develop associated problems that could affect their ability to drive safely, and it is important to follow the guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy has two circular patches of hair loss in close proximity on his scalp. Choose the one characteristic that would indicate a diagnosis of tinea capitis instead of alopecia areata from the options provided.
Your Answer: Scaly skin in the area of hair loss
Explanation:Understanding Tinea Capitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Tinea capitis, also known as scalp ringworm, is a fungal infection that affects the scalp and hair follicles. It is caused by dermatophytes Microsporum spp. and Trichophyton spp. and is more common in children and people of Afro-Caribbean background. If left untreated, it can lead to permanent hair loss.
Symptoms of tinea capitis include scaly patches on the scalp, inflammation, and pus-filled bumps known as kerion. To confirm the diagnosis, scalp scrapings including hairs and hair fragments should be examined.
Prompt treatment with systemic terbinafine or griseofulvin is necessary. Griseofulvin is the most effective agent for Microsporum canis infections, while terbinafine is more effective for Trichophyton infections. However, terbinafine is not licensed for use in children under 12 years old.
It is important to note that broken hairs in tinea capitis do not taper at the base, unlike the exclamation mark hairs seen in alopecia areata. Nail pitting, on the other hand, is a symptom of psoriasis and may also occur in alopecia areata. In alopecia areata, hair regrowth usually begins with fine white hairs, and onset is most common in childhood and adolescence.
Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment of tinea capitis is crucial in preventing permanent hair loss and managing the infection effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Correct
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What could be the probable reason for visual hallucinations in an 85-year-old woman named Edith who sees frightening faces on the walls and insects on the floor, despite being aware that they are not real? She has a medical history of hypertension, depression, hearing loss, and macular degeneration.
Your Answer: Charles Bonnet syndrome
Explanation:Charles Bonnet syndrome can lead to distressing visual hallucinations in approximately one-third of those affected. While Lewy body dementia may also cause visual hallucinations and cognitive impairment, it is less likely in the absence of other neuropsychiatric symptoms. Acute psychosis typically involves auditory hallucinations and delusions, while psychotic depression is characterized by severe depression and the emergence of psychotic symptoms.
Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome
Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced against a background of visual impairment, although this is not always the case. People with CBS typically retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances.
Several factors can increase the risk of developing CBS, including advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The condition affects both sexes equally and doesn’t appear to have any familial predisposition. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common ophthalmological condition associated with CBS, followed by glaucoma and cataract.
Complex visual hallucinations are relatively common in people with severe visual impairment, occurring in 10-30% of cases. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired individuals is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. Although some people find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing, CBS is typically a long-term condition, with 88% of people experiencing it for two years or more. Only 25% of people experience a resolution of their symptoms after nine years.
In summary, CBS is a condition that can cause complex hallucinations in people with visual impairment. Although the hallucinations can be distressing, most people with CBS retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances. The condition is relatively common in visually impaired individuals and tends to be a long-term condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 29
Correct
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A 67-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of increased difficulty in walking. During examination, weakness of ankle dorsiflexion and of the extensor hallucis longus is observed, along with loss of sensation on the lateral aspect of the lower leg. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve palsy
Explanation:A lesion in the common peroneal nerve can result in a reduction in the strength of both foot dorsiflexion and foot eversion.
Understanding Common Peroneal Nerve Lesion
A common peroneal nerve lesion is a type of nerve injury that often occurs at the neck of the fibula. This condition is characterized by foot drop, which is the most common symptom. Other symptoms include weakness of foot dorsiflexion and eversion, weakness of extensor hallucis longus, sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg, and wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with low back pain that radiates down her legs. She reports no loss of sensation or movement. Her ESR is elevated and serum rheumatoid factor is negative. X-ray of the spine reveals anterior squaring of the vertebrae.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Paget’s disease of bone
Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Explanation:Differentiating between Ankylosing Spondylitis, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Lumbar Disc Prolapse, Spinal Stenosis, and Paget’s Disease
When examining X-rays of the spine, certain abnormalities can suggest specific conditions. For example, irregularity and loss of cortical margins, widening of the joint space, and subsequent marginal sclerosis, narrowing, and fusion of the sacroiliac joint may indicate ankylosing spondylitis. Anterior squaring of the vertebrae, or loss of normal concavity of the anterior border of a vertebral body, may also be present in ankylosing spondylitis, particularly in the lumbar spine.
Rheumatoid arthritis, on the other hand, typically affects peripheral joints such as the hips, knees, hands, and feet. It is more common in women and often presents in the fifth decade of life.
Lumbar disc prolapse and spinal stenosis can both cause a reduction in joint space. Lumbar disc prolapse may present with sciatica, while spinal stenosis may cause pseudoclaudication, or discomfort and pain in the legs on walking that is relieved by rest and bending forwards. Spinal stenosis is more common in older individuals.
Paget’s disease, which is typically diagnosed after the age of 40, may present with bone pain, deformity, deafness, and pathological fractures. While it can be associated with vertebral body squaring, it usually involves individual vertebrae. Diagnosis is established by a raised serum alkaline phosphatase level and normal liver function tests.
In summary, careful examination of X-rays can help differentiate between various spinal conditions, including ankylosing spondylitis, rheumatoid arthritis, lumbar disc prolapse, spinal stenosis, and Paget’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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