MSFinals-5224
A 57-year-old man is recovering on the medical ward after suffering from a pulmonary embolism. He has stage-5 chronic kidney disease and was considered a high bleeding risk, so unfractionated heparin was chosen as the safest anticoagulant. After 6 days of treatment, he developed a rash on his right arm that looks like a bruise, is red, and appears swollen. He also complains of itchiness. The diagnosis is heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). What is the most appropriate management option for this patient’s anticoagulation?